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Indian Polity Revision Test Part 5 in English

Indian Polity Revision Test Part 5 in English

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Question 1
Who among the following serves as a protector of constitution?
A
Legislature
B
Executive
C
Judiciary
D
All the above
Question 1 Explanation: 
The judiciary is one of the three organs of the government, the other two being the Legislature and the Executive. The judiciary is engaged in the interpretation of law and serves as a protector of the constitution.
Question 2
Who is the supreme authority administering justice in his/her kingdom in Medieval India?
A
Diwan-e-Mazalim
B
Diwan-e-Qaza
C
Sultan
D
Diwan-e-Riyasa
Question 2 Explanation: 
In Medieval India, the Sultan/Sultana was the supreme authority administering justice in his/her kingdom. He / She administered justice in the following capacities namely Diwan-e-Qaza (Arbitrator), Diwan-e-Mazalim (Head of Bureaucracy) and Diwan-e-Riyasat (Commander-in-Chief).
Question 3
.____ authorized the Company to create the Corporation of Madras and the Mayor’s Court
A
Charter of 1813
B
Charter of 1833
C
Charter of 1683
D
Charter of 1784
Question 3 Explanation: 
The Charter of 1687 authorized the Company to create the Corporation of Madras and the Mayor’s Court was attached to it. It functioned as a court of record for the Madras town.
Question 4
Which of the following proclamation introduced English Law in Bombay and the Court of Judicature?
A
proclamation of 1672
B
proclamation of 1692
C
proclamation of 1772
D
proclamation of 1872
Question 4 Explanation: 
The proclamation of 1672 introduced English Law in Bombay and the Court of Judicature and the new central court was established.
Question 5
Who among the following codified Hindu Law?
  1. Warren Hastings
  2. Lord Cornwallis
  3. Lord Wellesley
A
1, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
1 alone
D
2, 3
Question 5 Explanation: 
The first Governor General Warren Hasting caused the codification at Hindu Law, and Cornwallis code was another major contribution. Similarly, the Islamic law was also codified and adopted in courts.
Question 6
Which act empowered the Crown to establish the Supreme Court of Judicature in Calcutta?
A
Charter act of 1813
B
Regulating act of 1773
C
Regulating act of 1793
D
Both a and c
Question 6 Explanation: 
Th e Regulating Act of 1773 empowered the Crown to establish the Supreme Court of Judicature in Calcutta and the Charter of 1774 expounded on the jurisdiction of the court.
Question 7
The Supreme Courts were established in Madras and Bombay in____
A
1824, 1801
B
1801, 1824
C
1810, 1842
D
1842, 1810
Question 7 Explanation: 
Th e Supreme Courts were established in Madras and Bombay in the years 1801 and 1824 respectively.
Question 8
Who among the following Governor abolished the court fee?
A
Lord Cornwallis
B
Warren Hasting
C
Lord Wellesley
D
Lord Minto
Question 8 Explanation: 
Lord Cornwallis prepared “A Set of Regulations” popularly known as the Cornwallis Code and it dealt with both civil and criminal justice. He reorganized civil courts, abolished court fees and reformed criminal courts.
Question 9
Who among the following Governor – general increased the powers and jurisdiction of courts?
A
Lord Cornwallis
B
Warren Hastings
C
Lord Wellesley
D
Lord Minto
Question 9 Explanation: 
Lord Minto after being appointed as the Governor- General of Bengal in 1807 increased the powers and jurisdiction of the various courts.
Question 10
Which of the act empowered crown to implement high courts by abolishing supreme courts prior to independence?
A
Indian High Courts Act of 1886
B
Queen’s proclamation 1858
C
Indian High Courts Act of 1861
D
Government of India act, 1919
Question 10 Explanation: 
Th e Indian High Courts Act of 1861 empowered the Crown to establish the High Courts of Judicature at Calcutta, Madras and Bombay and this also led to the abolition of Supreme Courts.
Question 11
How many high courts were established between independence and the enforcement of the Constitution?
A
3
B
7
C
12
D
9
Question 11 Explanation: 
The Government of India Act of 1935 effected considerable changes in the nature and jurisdiction of the High Courts. Between independence and the enforcement of the Constitution, seven High Courts at Punjab, Assam, Orissa, Rajasthan, Travancore, Mysore and Jammu and Kashmir were established. Th e other High Courts were established later.
Question 12
Which amendment of constitution brought drastic changes in Jurisdiction of high courts?
A
44th
B
1st
C
42nd
D
76th
Question 12 Explanation: 
Th e 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 brought in drastic changes in the jurisdiction of the High Courts.
Question 13
which of the following statement is incorrect?
A
There was a shift from a ‘unitary’ to a ‘federal’ type of government necessitating the need of a Federal Court
B
Government of India Act, 1919 made specific provision in this regard and the Federal Court was inaugurated in the year 1927
C
Federal court consisted of a Chief Justice and six judges.
D
In 1950, the Federal Court of India was succeeded by the Supreme Court of India.
Question 13 Explanation: 
With respect to the establishment of the Supreme Court of India, the Government of India Act, 1935 is a landmark legislation. The Act attempted to change the structure of the Indian government. There was a shift from a ‘unitary’ to a ‘federal’ type of government necessitating the need of a Federal Court. Thus, the Act made specific provision in this regard and the Federal Court was inaugurated in the year 1937. It consisted of a Chief Justice and six judges. In 1950, the Federal Court of India was succeeded by the Supreme Court of India.
Question 14
In which year Abolition of the Privy Council Jurisdiction Act was passed?
A
1950
B
1951
C
1949
D
1947
Question 14 Explanation: 
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 resulted in the transfer of political power and this necessitated the establishment of a separate and independent judicial body. With this objective, the jurisdiction of the Federal Court was enlarged and the Abolition of the Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 was passed making the Federal Court of India the highest judicial body in the country.
Question 15
Which article of constitution provided for the establishment of Supreme Court of India?
A
129
B
124
C
123
D
119
Question 15 Explanation: 
With the enforcement of the Constitution on 26 January 1950, Article 124 provided for the establishment of the Supreme Court of India.
Question 16
How many tiers are there in Indian Judicial system?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
1
Question 16 Explanation: 
The Constitution of India provides for a three - tier judicial system: (1) The supreme court of India (2) The High courts in the constituent states and (3) The District and Sessions Courts in the judicial districts in every state
Question 17
The highest appellate in India for criminal case is______
A
High court of the concern state
B
Bench present in that state
C
Supreme court of India
D
Governor of India
Question 17 Explanation: 
The Supreme Court assumes a much bigger note as the guardian of the constitution, as an arbitrator in disputes between States and the union Government and in disputes among the States, and as the highest appellate Courts in all civil and criminal cases.
Question 18
Which of the following is the apex court in India?
A
Supreme court
B
High court
C
Divisional bench
D
Tribunal
Question 18 Explanation: 
India has only a unitary judiciary system, with the Supreme Court as the apex Court, with authority over all other Courts if India.
Question 19
Which of the following article makes supreme court advisory jurisdiction?
A
125
B
123
C
143
D
134
Question 19 Explanation: 
The president can seek its advice on any legislative measure. However, the advice of the Supreme Court is not binding on the president (Article - 143). Article 143 of the Indian Constitution confers upon the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction. The President may seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact of public importance on which he thinks it expedient to obtain such an opinion.
Question 20
Which enables for the establishment of supreme court?
A
III
B
IV
C
VI
D
VII
Question 20 Explanation: 
The Supreme Court of India has been established by part V, Chapter IV of the Constitution of India. Articles 124 to 147 of the Constitution lays down the composition and jurisdiction of the supreme Court of India.
Question 21
Initially number of judges in supreme court?
A
1 + 5
B
1 + 7
C
1 + 9
D
1 + 12
Question 21 Explanation: 
Originally the Constitution provided for the chief Justice and seven lower ranking Judges. The Constitution enables the Parliament to increase this number.
Question 22
Who has the right of increasing the count of Judges in supreme court?
A
Prime Minister
B
President
C
Parliament
D
Chief Justice of India
Question 22 Explanation: 
Originally the Constitution provided for the chief Justice and seven lower ranking Judges. The Constitution enables the Parliament to increase this number. By 2008 the number of judges has been increased (from eight) to 30.
Question 23
For the appointment of Supreme Court judges, CJI should consult______
A
President
B
Collegium
C
Prime Minister of India
D
All the above
Question 23 Explanation: 
As to the appointment of the Supreme Court judges, The Chief Jostle of India should consult a “Collegium” of four senior most judges of the Supreme court, The Collegium makes the decision in consensus.
Question 24
Who among the following are involved in appointment of Supreme Court judges?
  1. President
  2. Supreme court judges
  3. Cabinet
A
1, 2
B
2 alone
C
1, 2, 3
D
2, 3
Question 24 Explanation: 
Every Judge of the supreme Court is appointed by the President after consultation with the cabinet and the Judges of the Supreme court.
Question 25
How long a judge of supreme court shall hold office?
A
60
B
58
C
65
D
62
Question 25 Explanation: 
Article 124(2) a Judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years.
Question 26
Which of the following are the Qualification to become a supreme court judge?
  1. should have been judge of High court at least for a period of 5 years
  2. an advocate of a high court or of two or more such courts in succession for at least 10 years
  3. one must be a citizen of India
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
1, 2, 3
Question 26 Explanation: 
To be considered for the office of Supreme court Judge, one must be a citizen of India and his qualification is per the Parliament’s decision, and they should have been judge of High court at least for a period of 5 years; or an advocates of a high court or of two or more such courts in succession for at least 10 years or the person must be, in the opinion of the president, a distinguished jurist.
Question 27
The Supreme court of India commenced on_____
A
January 26, 1950
B
January 28, 1950
C
November 26, 1949
D
August 15, 1947
Question 27 Explanation: 
The Supreme Court of India under the present Constitution commenced functioning on January 28, 1950.
Question 28
The Supreme Court of India under the present Constitution commenced functioning on January 28, 1950.
A
1950
B
1958
C
1948
D
1947
Question 28 Explanation: 
The Supreme Court of India was moved to the present building in 1958.
Question 29
Initially, the supreme court of India proceedings held in______
A
Calcutta High court
B
Madras High court
C
Chamber of Princes in the Parliament
D
Bombay high court
Question 29 Explanation: 
The Supreme Court of India under the present Constitution was placed then in the Chamber of Princes in the Parliament.
Question 30
Who was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court?
A
Sayid Faze Ali
B
M. Patanjali Sastri
C
Harilal J. Kania
D
Mukherjea
Question 30 Explanation: 
Harilal J. Kania was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. The other judges who assumed office along with him wise Justices Sayid Faze Ali, M. Patanjali Sastri, Mehar Chand Mahajan, Bijan Kumar, Mukherjea and S.R.Das.
Question 31
How many high courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one state?
A
4
B
2
C
7
D
None
Question 31 Explanation: 
The High Court is the head of a State’s judicial administration every constituent state in expected to have a high Court. However, at present four high courts have jurisdiction over more than one state.
Question 32
Which of the following Union Territories have its own high court?
  1. Puducherry
  2. New Delhi
  3. Andaman and Nicobar
A
1, 2, 3
B
2 alone
C
2, 3
D
1, 3
Question 32 Explanation: 
Among the union territories Delhi alone has a high court of its own. Other six union Territories come under the Jurisdiction of nearby state high Courts.
Question 33
The chief justice of High court is appointed by______
A
Governor
B
President
C
Chief Minister
D
Chief Justice of Supreme court
Question 33 Explanation: 
The Chief Justice of the High court is appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State. In appointing other judges, the Chief Justice of that High court is also consulted.
Question 34
How long a Judge of High court shall hold office?
A
65
B
60
C
58
D
62
Question 34 Explanation: 
The Judges of the High court hold office until the age of 62 years and are removable in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme court.
Question 35
Which of the following are the Qualification to become a High court judge?
  1. must be a citizen of India
  2. held a Judicial office in India for 10 years or must have practiced as an advocate of high court
  3. should be Judge of District court
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 2
C
2, 3
D
1, 3
Question 35 Explanation: 
To be considered for appointment as a Judge one must be a citizen of India and have held a Judicial office in India for 10 years or must have practiced as an advocate of high court.
Question 36
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A
The High Court have original and appellate jurisdictions all over the country
B
High court has powers of Super intendant over all courts within its jurisdiction
C
Though the High courts are the party of single and integrated judicial system, yet they are completely independent judicial institution
D
The High Court has the power to issue writ in cases involving ‘Fundamental Rights’
Question 36 Explanation: 
Th e High Court’s too have original and appellate jurisdictions, in cases arising within the territories of the State. Each High court has powers of Super intendant over all courts within its jurisdiction. Though the High courts are the party of single and integrated judicial system, yet they are completely independent judicial institutions The High Court too has the power to issue writ in cases involving ‘Fundamental Rights’.
Question 37
Who has the power to issue writ?
  1. Supreme court
  2. High court
  3. District court
A
1 alone
B
1, 2, 3
C
1, 2
D
2, 3
Question 37 Explanation: 
Both the Supreme court and High court have the power to issue writs with a view to ensure quicker justice and early relief to persons whose rights are violated. There are five such writs.
Question 38
Which Writ is meant to direct any authority to perform its legal duty?
A
Prohibition
B
Mandamus
C
Certiorari
D
Habeas Corpus
Question 38 Explanation: 
Mandamus is a command to act law fully and to resist from penetrothing an unlawful act, It is meant to direct any authority to perform its legal duty. Mandamus may he issued against any authority, Officers, Government or even judicial bodies that tail or refuse to perform a public duty and discharge a legal obligation.
Question 39
Which writ safeguards personal liberty of every individual?
A
Quo – Warranto
B
Certiorari
C
Habeas Corpus
D
Prohibition
Question 39 Explanation: 
Habeas Corpus: Literally means a demand to produce the person in body. It applies in cases where a person is alleged to have been illegally detained. This writ safeguards personal liberty of every individual.
Question 40
Which writ is issued by a higher Court to a lower court or tribunal for prohibiting it from exceeding its jurisdiction?
A
Certiorari
B
Quo – Warranto
C
Prohibition
D
Mandamus
Question 40 Explanation: 
Prohibition is issued by a higher Court to a lower court or tribunal for prohibiting it from exceeding its jurisdiction. Writ of Prohibition is issued only against a judicial or quasi – judicial body.
Question 41
Which writ means ‘to be informed’?
A
Quo – Warranto
B
Certiorari
C
Prohibition
D
Mandamus
Question 41 Explanation: 
Certiorari too lies against judicial or quasi – judicial authorities, and it means ‘to be informed’. The writ of certiorari is issued to quash illegal orders of judicial or quasi – judicial bodies.
Question 42
Any citizen of India can approach the courts for public case by filing a petition under
  1. the supreme court by article 32
  2. high court under article 326
  3. in the magistrate court under section 133 of the CRPC
Which of the following is incorrect?
A
1, 2, 3
B
1 alone
C
2 alone
D
2, 3
Question 42 Explanation: 
Any citizen of India can approach the courts for public case (upon the interest of the public) by filing a petition under (a) the supreme court by article 32, (b) in the high court under article 226 and (c) in the magistrate court under section 133 of the CRPC.
Question 43
Which of the following article is called upon supreme court frequently?
A
1
B
21
C
45
D
26
Question 43 Explanation: 
Article 21 of the constitution has been called up frequently in the Supreme court. Judgments upon this article suggest the trends of judicial activism.
Question 44
The India Penal code is_______
A
criminal code of India
B
civil code of India
C
Constitutional code of India
D
None
Question 44 Explanation: 
The Indian Penal Code is the criminal code of India. It is a comprehensive code intended to cover all substantive aspects of criminal law.
Question 45
Before Independence the first law commission of India was in_____
A
1784
B
1834
C
1935
D
1919
Question 45 Explanation: 
The IPC was drafted in 1860 on the recommendation of the first law commission of India established in 1834. It came into force in British India during the early British Raj period of 1862.
Question 46
Who among the following cannot be charged based on the Indian Penal Code?
  1. High court judges
  2. Military and armed forces
  3. Supreme court judges
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 3
C
2 alone
D
None
Question 46 Explanation: 
The Indian Penal Code has a basic format, it is a document that lists all the cases and punishments that a person committing any crimes is liable to be charged. It covers any person of Indian citizenship. The exceptions are the military and other armed forces, they cannot be charged based on the Indian Penal Code. They have a different set of laws under the Indian Penal Code as well.
Question 47
Who is the 1st chief justice of supreme court from depressed class?
A
K.G. Balakrishnan
B
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
C
Sir Hari Singh Gour
D
K. G. Krishna
Question 47 Explanation: 
Justice K.G. Balakrishnan in 2000 became the first judge from the depressed class. In 2007 he became the first Dalit Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
Question 48
Which article corresponds to Election?
A
329-330
B
324-330
C
324-329
D
None of the above
Question 48 Explanation: 
Part xv, Articles 324-329 deals with ElectionsThe constitution –makers had been anxious to safeguard this political right as an integral part of the constitution itself. It is for this important reason that the subject of elections has been accorded a constitutional recognition in our country
Question 49
Which of the following case is a paramount obligation to give medical aid to injured citizen as soon as possible without waiting for any formalities?
A
Parmanand Katara vs. Union of India
B
A.K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case
C
Bagwan Dass vs. state of Delhi
D
A.K. Arjun vs. State of Madras case
Question 49 Explanation: 
In the Parmanand Katara vs. Union of India case the supreme court held in the Public interest Litigation filed by a human rights activist fighting for general public interest, that it is a paramount obligation of every member of the medical profession to give medical aid to every injured citizen as soon as possible without waiting for any procedural formalities.
Question 50
who of the following is the current chief justice of India?
A
H. J. Kania
B
Ranjan Gogoi
C
Sharad Arvind Bobde
D
Dipak Misra
Question 50 Explanation: 
The present CJI is Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde, and is the 47th CJI since 26th January 1950, the year the Constitution came into effect and the supreme court came into being.
Question 51
Who of the following is the chief justice of Madras high court?
A
Amreshwar Pratap Sahi
B
Vijaya Kamlesh Tahilramani
C
Vineet Kothari
D
Huluvadi G. Ramesh
Question 51 Explanation: 
The current Chief Justice of the Chennai High Court is Amreshwar Pratap Sahi.
Question 52
The Andaman and Nicobar comes under the jurisdiction is______
A
Calcutta High Court
B
Bombay High Court
C
Madras High Court
D
Karnataka High Court
Question 53
Guwahati High Court has Jurisdiction over______
  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Nagaland
  3. Mizoram
  4. Manipur
A
1, 2, 3, 4
B
1, 3, 4
C
1, 2, 3
D
2, 3, 4
Question 53 Explanation: 
Guwahati High Court Government of India Act, 1935, Jurisdiction over Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam, Mizoram, seat at Guwahati, bench at Aizwal, Itanagar, Kohima.
Question 54
The power of superintendence, direction and control of election to vice president is stated under_______
A
Article 234
B
Article 423
C
Article 324
D
Article 334
Question 54 Explanation: 
Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the powers of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.
Question 55
Which Part of the constitution deals with election?
A
XX
B
XV
C
XIV
D
XII
Question 55 Explanation: 
The constitution of India has 24 parts. Part xv, Articles 324-329 deals with Elections. Part XV of the Indian Constitution titled “Elections” is of great importance.
Question 56
Which article says that the elections to the Lok Sabha be on the basis of Adult Suffrage?
A
334
B
326
C
325
D
329
Question 56 Explanation: 
Article 326 of the Indian Constitution says that the elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Vidhan Sabha of every state shall be on the basis of Adult Suffrage.
Question 57
The study related to the results and other statistics relating to Elections is called as____
A
Psephology
B
Pathology
C
Palaeontology
D
Anthrology
Question 57 Explanation: 
Psephology is the study of results and other statistics relating to Elections and trends in voting.
Question 58
How many Lok Sabha constituencies are there in Tamil Nadu?
A
40
B
39
C
38
D
37
Question 58 Explanation: 
There are totally 39 Lok Sabha constituencies in Tamil Nadu state and One Lok Sabha constituency from Puducherry. The average voters for each of the constituency is around 1.51 million in Tamil Nadu and 0.9 million in Puducherry.
Question 59
How many Lok Sabha constituencies in Tamil Nadu?
A
545
B
543
C
235
D
250
Question 59 Explanation: 
For Lok Sabha elections, the country is divided into 543 constituencies. The representative elected from each constituency is called a member of Parliament or an MP.
Question 60
The First delimitation commission act passed in______
A
1952
B
1963
C
1973
D
2002
Question 60 Explanation: 
First Delimitation Commission Act, 1952 Second Delimitation Commission Act, 1963 Third Delimitation Act,1973 Fourth Delimitation Act, 2002.
Question 61
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A
A complete revision of Voters list takes place every Ten years
B
In the last few years, a new system of Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC) has been introduced.
C
Names of those who move out of the place or those who are dead are deleted.
D
Every citizen has the right to vote, regardless of his or her caste, religion or gender.
Question 61 Explanation: 
Every citizen has the right to vote, regardless of his or her caste, religion or gender. It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put on the voters’ list. Names of those who move out of the place or those who are dead are deleted. A complete revision of list takes place every fi ve years. In the last few years, a new system of Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC) has been introduced.
Question 62
Which Amendment Act reduced the Voting age of Indian citizens from 21 to 18?
A
61st
B
42nd
C
44th
D
66th
Question 62 Explanation: 
The Sixty-first Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.
Question 63
Which among the following declaration has to be made for contesting in an election?
  1. Serious criminal cases pending against the candidate
  2. Civil cases pending against the candidate
  3. Details of the assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
  4. Educational qualifications of the candidate
A
1, 2, 3, 4
B
1, 3, 4
C
2, 3, 4
D
1, 2, 4
Question 63 Explanation: 
According to the direction of the Supreme Court, every candidate has to make a legal declaration, giving full details of: Serious criminal cases pending against the candidate, Details of the assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family, Educational qualifications of the candidate.
Question 64
In our country such campaigns take place for______
A
two weeks period between the announcement of the final list of candidates and the date of polling
B
three weeks period between the announcement of the final list of candidates and the date of polling
C
one week period between the announcement of the final list of candidates and the date of polling
D
10 days period between the announcement of the final list of candidates and the date of polling
Question 64 Explanation: 
In our country such campaigns take place for a two week period between the announcement of the final list of candidates and the date of polling. During this period the candidates approach their voters, political leaders address election meetings and political parties mobilise their supporters.
Question 65
The 1st Lok Sabha election held during_____
A
1951-1952
B
1950-1951
C
1950-1952
D
1951-1953
Question 65 Explanation: 
The first general election of 1951-1952 elected the first Lok Sabha since India became independent. The Congress had won 364 out of 489 Lok Sabha seats. Its vote share was 45 percent.
Question 66
The Chief Electoral of state government/ union territory is designated by____
A
President office
B
Chief Justice
C
Chief election Commission
D
Governor
Question 66 Explanation: 
The Election commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the government of the state / union territory as the chief electoral officer in consultation with the state government/ union territory administration.
Question 67
The district election officer is a______
A
Central government officer
B
State government officer
C
Retired supreme court judge
D
Retired High court Judge
Question 67 Explanation: 
The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the state government as the district election officer in consultation with the state government.
Question 68
The returning officer of the parliamentary election is designated by_____
A
State election commission
B
Election commission of India
C
District election officer
D
All the above
Question 68 Explanation: 
The returning officer of a Parliamentary or Assembly constituency is responsible for the conduct of elections in the Parliamentary or Assembly constituency concerned. The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the government or a local authority as the returning officer for each of the assembly or parliamentary constituencies in consultation with the state government/union territory administration.
Question 69
Who of the following is the responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls for a parliamentary/ assembly constituency?
A
Returning Officer
B
Electoral Registration Officer
C
Presiding Officer
D
Chief Electoral Officer
Question 69 Explanation: 
The Electoral registration officer is responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls for a parliamentary/ assembly constituency.
Question 70
With the assistance of Polling officers who conducts the poll at a polling station?
A
Election Observers
B
Presiding Officer
C
Returning Officer
D
District Election Officer
Question 70 Explanation: 
The Presiding officer with the assistance of Polling officers conducts the poll at a polling station. The district election officer appoints the Presiding officers and the Polling officers. In the case of union territories, such appointments are made by the returning officers.
Question 71
Who of the following is appointed as the election observers?
A
Members of the political parties
B
Returning Officer
C
District Election Officer
D
officers of government
Question 71 Explanation: 
The Election Commission of India nominates officers of government as Election observers (general observers and election expenditure observers) for Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies. They perform such functions as are entrusted to them by the commission. They report directly to the commission.
Question 72
In which year provision made for electronic voting machines?
A
1999
B
2009
C
1989
D
2014
Question 72 Explanation: 
In 1989, a provision was made to facilitate the use of electronic voting machines in elections. In 1989, a provision was made for adjournment of poll in case of booth capturing.
Question 73
The prohibition on liquor ban within polling area exists for_____
A
48hrs
B
24 hrs
C
72 hrs
D
12hrs
Question 73 Explanation: 
Based on the recommendations by the committee, Prohibition on the sale of liquor within a polling area during the period of 48 hours ending with the hour fixed for the conclusion of poll.
Question 74
which amendment provided for the disqualification of the MP and MLA on the ground of defection from one political party to another?
A
42nd
B
43rd
C
52nd
D
92nd
Question 74 Explanation: 
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and the State legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another. This act is often referred to as “Anti-defection law”
Question 75
Which amendment made changes in Anti-defection law?
A
72nd
B
91st
C
94th
D
103rd
Question 75 Explanation: 
The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 made one change in the provision of Anti-defection law i.e., disqualification on ground of defection not to apply in case of split.
Question 76
An independent member of the house becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House_______
A
if he joins any political party after election
B
if he is absent for the first sitting
C
if he belongs to other state
D
all the above
Question 76 Explanation: 
An independent member of the house becomes disqualified to remain a member of the house if he joins any political party after such election.
Question 77
When will a nominated member of the house gets disqualified?
A
if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat
B
if he joins any political party after the expiry of three months from the date on which he takes his seat
C
if he joins any political party after the expiry of 1 month from the date on which he takes his seat
D
if he joins any political party after the expiry of twelve months from the date on which he takes his seat
Question 77 Explanation: 
A nominated member of the house gets disqualified if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the house.
Question 78
Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by____
A
president of India
B
Governor
C
Chief Justice
D
Presiding officer
Question 78 Explanation: 
Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the Presiding officer of the house.
Question 79
Which of the following committee is related to state funding of Elections?
A
Indrajit Gupta Committee
B
Sakaria commission
C
Vohra Committee
D
Tanka Committee
Question 79 Explanation: 
The Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections, 1998, backed the idea of state funding of elections on principle, stating that “The committee see full jurisdiction constitutional, legal as well as on the ground of public interest, for grant of state subvention to political parties, so as to establish such conditions where even the parties with modest financial resources may be able to compete with those who have superior financial resources.
Question 80
The Indrajit committee has recommended the creation of a separate Election Fund with an annual contribution of______ by the centre and state.
A
Rs. 600 cores
B
Rs. 1600 cores
C
Rs. 1200 cores
D
Rs. 1800 core
Question 80 Explanation: 
The Indrajit committee has recommended the creation of a separate Election Fund with an annual contribution of Rs. 600 cores by the centre and a matching amount contributed by all state governments together.
Question 81
The expansion of NOTA is_____
A
Not Voting to Anyone
B
None Of The Above
C
NO One Of The Above
D
None
Question 81 Explanation: 
NOTA is the option at the end of the Candidates’ List, on the EVMs. None Of The Above (NOTA)- A voter’s right to reject a step towards electoral reforms.
Question 82
_____ seats are reserved for women in Panchayat bodies.
A
1/3rd
B
1/4th
C
2/3rd
D
3/4th
Question 82 Explanation: 
In line with the 73rd Amendment of the Constitution, Panchayati Raj institutions currently have 33 percent of all seats reserved for women.
Question 83
Law passed in 1985 which disqualifies elected members on the grounds of defection to another party. It is
A
Anti-defection law
B
Criminal law
C
Civil law
D
None of the above
Question 83 Explanation: 
Anti-defection law: Law passed in 1985 which disqualifies elected members on the grounds of defection to another party.
Question 84
Which of the following ID proof are valid for voting?
A
Voter ID
B
Aadhar Card
C
Driving License
D
All the above
Question 84 Explanation: 
Th e voters are required to carry this card when they go out to vote. Not compulsory, for voting, the voters can show many other proofs like the Aadhar Card, Ration card or Driving License.
Question 85
The 17th Lok Sabha election held during_____
A
April to May
B
March to May
C
February to April
D
March to April
Question 85 Explanation: 
The 2019 Indian general election was held in seven phases from 11 April to 19 May 2019 to constitute the 17th Lok Sabha.
Question 86
The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the __
A
President of India
B
Prime Minister of India
C
Chief Justice of India
D
Chief Secretary of India
Question 86 Explanation: 
The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
Question 87
The tenure of Chief Election commissioner
A
6 years or age of 65
B
6 years or age of 62
C
5 years or age of 65
D
5 years or age of 62
Question 87 Explanation: 
Chief Election Commissioner have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
Question 88
Who of the following is the current chief election commissioner?
A
Om Prakash Rawat
B
Sunil Arora
C
Nasim Zaidi
D
Achal Kumar Jyoti
Question 88 Explanation: 
Sunil Arora is the current 23rd Chief Election Commissioner and the two Election Commissioners are Ashok Lavasa and Sushil Chandra.
Question 89
How many members are there in Rajya Sabha?
A
250
B
238
C
228
D
545
Question 89 Explanation: 
The Rajya Sabha or the Council of States is called as upper house. It has a total number of 250 members including 238 from all the states and union territories and 12 members nominated by the President.
Question 90
The Rajya Sabha constituted in____
A
1950
B
1951
C
1952
D
1954
Question 90 Explanation: 
The Rajya Sabha is an institution to protect the rights and interests of the states like the senate in USA. It was constituted on 3rd April, 1952.
Question 91
The local body election takes place once in_____
A
5 years
B
6 years
C
7 years
D
4 years
Question 91 Explanation: 
Elections to Local Bodies in Tamil Nadu are conducted once in five years to elect the representatives to the Urban and Rural local bodies.
Question 92
Who among the following conducts local body election?
A
State election commission
B
Central election commission
C
Both a and b
D
None
Question 92 Explanation: 
The State Election Commissions constituted under the Constitution (Seventy-third and Seventy-fourth) Amendments Act, 1992 for each State / Union Territory are vested with the powers of conduct of elections to the Corporations, Municipalities, Zilla Parishads, District Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Gram Panchayats.
Question 93
The 1st local body election in Tamil Nadu held in____
A
1969
B
1952
C
1996
D
1994
Question 93 Explanation: 
The first election to the local bodies in Tamil Nadu were held in October 1996. Subsequent elections were conducted in October 2001 and October 2006.
Question 94
Who among the following acts a president when both president and vice president are absent?
A
Chief Justice of India
B
Prime Minister
C
Lt. Governor of Delhi
D
Chief election Commissioner
Question 94 Explanation: 
In such an eventuality, the chief justice—or in his absence, the senior most judge of the Supreme Court of India available—discharges the functions of the president until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-president begins to act as President under Article 65 of the constitution.
Question 95
Who was the 1st Chief Justice to act as President?
A
V.V. Giri
B
Hidayatullah
C
Mehr Chand Mahajan
D
Bijan Kumar Mukherjea
Question 95 Explanation: 
Justice Hidayatullah was sworn in as the Acting President of India on 20th July 1969 and served in that capacity till late V.V. Giri was sworn in as the duly elected President of the Republic.
Question 96
Under which Act, a person had to be an elector in a parliamentary constituency in the State from where he seeks election to Rajya Sabha?
A
Population act
B
Delimitation commission act
C
Representation of people’s act 1955
D
Representation of people’s act 1951
Question 96 Explanation: 
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person had to be an elector in a parliamentary constituency in the State from where he seeks election to Rajya Sabha.
Question 97
Who introduced the term judicial activism in 1947,in America in an article titled ‘ The Supreme court;1947?
A
Arthur Schlesinger Jr
B
Wellington
C
Lord Kinglsey
D
Arnold gigger
Question 97 Explanation: 
Judicial activism as a dynamic process of judicial outlook in a changing society. Arthur Schlesinger Jr. introduced the term judicial activism in 1947,in America in an article titled ‘ The Supreme court;1947’. According to Black’s law dictionary judicial activism is a judicial philosophy which motivates judges to depart from the traditional precedents in favour of new progressive social policies.
Question 98
______is a lawful proceeding in which a jury makes a decision or findings of fact.
A
Trial
B
Trial by Jury
C
Judicial review
D
None of the above
Question 98 Explanation: 
Trial by Jury: It is a lawful proceeding in which a jury makes a decision or findings of fact. It is distinguished from a bench trial in which a judge or panel of judges makes all decisions.
Question 99
_______ is a theory of judicial interpretation that encourages judges to limit the exercise of their own power.
A
Judicial review
B
Jury review
C
Judicial restraint
D
None of the above
Question 99 Explanation: 
Judicial Restraint: It is a theory of judicial interpretation that encourages judges to limit the exercise of their own power.
Question 100
_______appellate is the power of an appellate court to review, amend and overrule decisions of a trial court or other lower tribunal.
A
Original jurisdiction
B
Appellate jurisdiction
C
Administrative jurisdiction
D
Both a and c
Question 100 Explanation: 
Original Jurisdiction: It is a court’s authority to hear a case for the first time. Appellate Jurisdiction: It is the power of an appellate court to review, amend and overrule decisions of a trial court or other lower tribunal.
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