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Indian Polity Revision Test Part 4 in English

Indian Polity Revision Test Part 4 in English

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Question 1
The term Federalism refers to______  
A
Distribution of power between Centre and State
B
Power vested within center
C
Religious nation
D
Theocratic
Question 1 Explanation: 
Federalism refers to a political system that possess constitutionally provided and guaranteed distribution of powers between a national government and several regional governments.
Question 2
Usually in which country federalism is followed?  
A
In a country where diversity of people lives
B
In a country where uniformity of people lives
C
In a country where monarchy is existing
D
In a country where Communism is existing
Question 2 Explanation: 
Usually in countries where there is diversity of people federalism will be followed. If regions in a country are distinct in terms of ethnicity, language, religion etc the ideal form of government will be the federal system. Democratic federalism is the best instrument to ensure ‘Unity in diversity’.
Question 3
which states enjoys ultimate sovereignty?
A
constituent states
B
Theocratic state
C
federal state
D
Monarch state
Question 3 Explanation: 
In fact, the constituent states enjoy quasi sovereignty, whereas the federal state enjoys ultimate sovereignty. This federal system is based a distribution of powers between the federal or central or union government and the constituent states.
Question 4
Which of the following is the Modern world’s first federal state?  
A
Russia
B
Pakistan
C
China
D
USA
Question 4 Explanation: 
The thirteen British colonies in America revolted and liberated themselves from the British yoke. Thereafter they constituted themselves into a federal state. Thus, in the modern world, the United States of America became the first federal state.
Question 5
Switzerland is a______ state  
A
Bilingual
B
Trilingual
C
Unilingual
D
Multilingual
Question 5 Explanation: 
The trilingual Switzerland similarly adopted a federal form of government. The European Union today another example of federal formation on a voluntary basis.
Question 6
Which of the following act paved a way for the rise of federalism in India?  
A
Charter act 1813
B
Pitt’s India act, 1784
C
Regulating act, 1773
D
Charter act, 1833
Question 6 Explanation: 
The beginnings of federalism in modern India could be traced in the Regulating Act of 1773, which brought the three regions in India under East India Company’s authority (Madras, Calcutta and Bombay) under the supervisory control of the governor general at Calcutta.
Question 7
The Nehru Committee Report in 1928 favoured a______ structure.  
A
Federal
B
Monarch
C
Unitary
D
Anarchy
Question 7 Explanation: 
The Nehru Committee Report in 1928 and Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru’s first proposals of a constitution favoured a federal structure with more powers for the constituent states.
Question 8
The constitution of independent India establishes federalism through its______ provisions
A
Part V
B
Part VI
C
Part VII
D
Part X
Question 8 Explanation: 
The creation of Pakistan and consequent human tragedies changed the views of the constituent Assembly resulting in weak state governments and an over centralized union government, but the whole of the Princely state of Jammu and Kashmir became a district state within the Indian Union. The constitution of independent India establishes federalism through its Part VI provisions.
Question 9
The three lists relating centre and state relation are placed in which schedule?  
A
9th
B
6th
C
7th
D
5th
Question 9 Explanation: 
The Seventh Schedule of the constitution contains the three lists relating to the distribution of powers between the centre and states.
Question 10
Which of the following is incorrect?
A
The constitution must be the supreme political document in the country
B
All governments must follow the terms, conditions, provisions and procedures contained in the constitution.
C
No government can claim powers over and above the constitution.
D
Federalism requires an Oral constitution
Question 10 Explanation: 
Federalism requires a written constitution. There are many governments in any federal system and for their smooth and friction free functioning their powers must be stated in crystal clear terms. The constitution must be the supreme political document in the country. All governments must follow the terms, conditions, provisions and procedures contained in the constitution. No government can claim powers over and above the constitution.
Question 11
Indian constitution distributes powers between the_____ levels of governments in a comprehensive scheme  
A
Two
B
There
C
Four
D
None
Question 11 Explanation: 
The distribution of powers between centre and states is the cardinal principle of any federal system. Indian constitution distributes powers between the two levels of governments in a comprehensive scheme.
Question 12
In the classical federalism of American constitution how mode of distribution is/are present?  
A
Two
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
Question 12 Explanation: 
There are three lists of power distribution in India unlike in the classical federalism of American constitution where there is only a single mode of distribution.
Question 13
The Bicameralism refers to_______  
A
Parliaments having two houses
B
Two official languages
C
Two party system
D
None
Question 13 Explanation: 
The federal constitutions provide for bicameralism. It refers to parliaments having two houses. Indian Parliament is bicameral as it consists of two houses.
Question 14
Which of the following is the guardian of state rights?
A
Lok Sabha
B
House of the People
C
Rajya Sabha
D
High Court
Question 14 Explanation: 
The upper house is called Rajya Sabha or Council of States. The Council of States is the guardian of state rights and it consists of the representatives of the states. All over the world the upper house is deemed to be the protector of state rights and interests.
Question 15
Who acts as the umpire of the federal system and protector of the constitution?  
A
Supreme court
B
High Court
C
President
D
Attorney general of India
Question 15 Explanation: 
Indian Supreme Court acts as the umpire of the federal system and protector of the constitution. It possess powers of interpretation and adjudication. If any disagreement or contradiction arises among the central and state
Question 16
When Clash between Tamil Nadu and Kerala arises who will resolve the issue?  
A
High court of nearby state
B
Supreme court
C
President
D
Prime Minister
Question 16 Explanation: 
The constitution endows the Supreme Court with Original Jurisdiction. It means that the Supreme Court alone possesses the exclusive powers to resolve any federal dispute between union government and state governments or among state governments. If a problem arises between Tamil Nadu and union government or between Tamil Nadu and any other
Question 17
The term Union of State refers to_____  
A
29 states alone
B
29 states and central government
C
29 states and 7 union territories
D
Twenty Nine States, Seven Union Territories, Acquired Territory
Question 17 Explanation: 
There are important differences between Union of States and Territory of India. Union of State refers to the twenty nine states and central government. Territory of India means: 1. Twenty Nine States 2. Seven Union Territories 3. Acquired Territory (Any territory acquired by India like Pondicherry, Daman Diu after they became part of India and before they were made Union Territories)
Question 18
  • Assertion [A]: The state of Tamil Nadu possess its own constitution
  •      Reason [R]: Every state in India possess its own constitution
 
A
[A] is true, but [R] is false.
B
Both [A] & [R] are true; and [R] is the correct Explanation of [A]
C
[A] is false, but [R] is true.
D
Both [A] and [R] are false
Question 18 Explanation: 
India possesses only one national constitution that caters to the needs of administration both in the centre and states. There is no concept of state constitutions.
Question 19
Which of the following statement is incorrect?  
A
A constitution is called a flexible one if it prescribes ordinary legislative process not only for making laws but also for amending the constitution
B
Indian Constitution is flexible in nature
C
Some of the provisions of the constitution can be carried out by a simple majority in the Parliament
D
In the United States has both American citizenship and the citizenship of the state where he lives
Question 19 Explanation: 
A constitution is called a flexible one if it prescribes ordinary legislative process not only for making laws but also for amending the constitution. Indian Constitution is partially flexible. Some of the provisions of the constitution can be carried out by a simple majority in the Parliament, and such amendment are not referred to approval of States legislatures. In the United States has both American citizenship and the citizenship of the state where he lives.
Question 20
Which of the following country possess flexible constitution?  
A
USA
B
Canada
C
United Kingdom
D
Russia
Question 20 Explanation: 
A constitution is called a flexible one if it prescribes ordinary legislative process not only for making laws but also for amending the constitution. The constitution of United Kingdom is a flexible constitution.
Question 21
The American federation is described as____
A
the indestructible Union Composed of Indestructible States
B
the indestructible Union Composed of destructible States
C
the destructible Union Composed of Indestructible States
D
the destructible Union Composed of destructible States
Question 21 Explanation: 
In contrast the Supreme Court of the United States has delivered a judgment stating that the states there have a fundamental right to existence. It has described the American federation as “the indestructible Union Composed of Indestructible States”. The states cannot destroy the Union and similarly the national government cannot destroy the states in the United States.
Question 22
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A
The Rajya Sabha seats are distributed on the basis of population of the individual states.
B
The most populous state of Uttar Pradesh has 31 seats whereas the smaller states like Nagaland have two seats.
C
In any ideal federalism there should be equality of seat distribution
D
In the upper house as seen in the United States where all the fifty state have two seats each in the upper House the Senate of the Congress (Parliament)
Question 22 Explanation: 
There is no equality principle followed in the distribution of seats in the Council of States. The seats are distributed on the basis of population of the individual states. The most populous state of Uttar Pradesh has 31 seats whereas the smaller states like Nagaland have only one seat. But in any ideal federalism there should be equality of seat distribution in the upper house as seen in the United States where all the fifty state have two seats each in the upper House the Senate of the Congress (Parliament)
Question 23
Which article of the constitution enables the Rajya Sabha to transfer a subject from the State List to Union list?
A
Article 234
B
Article 243
C
Article 342
D
Article 239
Question 23 Explanation: 
Article 243 of the constitution enables the Rajya Sabha to transfer a subject from the State List to Union list for the purpose of legislation by parliament on grounds of national interest
Question 24
For transfer of subject from state list to central list_____ majority of is required
A
Special
B
Simple
C
1/3rd
D
1/4th
Question 24 Explanation: 
Article 243 says that the Council of States can pass a resolution for the transfer of power from state to centre supported by a special majority, that is two third majority of members present and voting and a simple majority of the total membership of the House.
Question 25
The transfer of subject by Rajya Sabha is valid for_____
A
6 months
B
3 months
C
1 year
D
2 years
Question 25 Explanation: 
The transfer of subject by Rajya Sabha is valid for only one year. The Rajya Sabha can again pass the resolution if the same circumstances continue. Many critics and states have criticized this article as violative of state rights.
Question 26
Which article provides power to Rajya Sabha for creating new All India Services?
A
312
B
123
C
213
D
230
Question 26 Explanation: 
Article 312 of the constitution provides power to Rajya Sabha to create new All India Services by passing a resolution supported by a two third majority of the members present and voting and a simple majority of the total membership of the House. All India Services are recruited by the union government but deployed in the states. The ultimate control over the officers of the All India Service rests with the union government.
Question 27
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A
Indian constitution envisages distribution of powers only in legislative and administrative domains
B
The Supreme Court is the apex judicial institution
C
There is no federalism in judiciary in India.
D
There is federalism in judiciary in India in terms of high courts and sub ordinate courts
Question 27 Explanation: 
Indian constitution envisages distribution of powers only in legislative and administrative domains and it establishes a single, integrated and hierarchical judiciary. The Supreme Court is the apex judicial institution and the High Courts and the Subordinate Courts function under its supervision and power. There is no federalism in judiciary in India.
Question 28
Who conducts the Rajya Sabha election?
A
By selected members of Lok Sabha
B
By National election commission
C
By Office of the Prime minister
D
By Office of the President
Question 28 Explanation: 
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India at national, state and district level. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state Legislative Assemblies, state legislative Councils, and the offices of the President and Vice President of the country.
Question 29
Which amendment made state election commission to conduct elections to Panchayat Bodies and Urban Local Bodies?
A
73rd and 74th
B
72nd and 73rd
C
74th and 75th
D
71st and 72nd
Question 29 Explanation: 
State Election Commission is not part of the federal system in India. It conducts elections to Panchayat Bodies and Urban Local Bodies in accordance with 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.
Question 30
The Comptroller and Auditor-General as mentioned in article_____
A
158
B
187
C
148
D
132
Question 30 Explanation: 
India follows a unified auditing system for both the centre and state governments. The Comptroller and Auditor-General as mentioned in article 148 of the constitution controls the entire financial system of the country and there is no specific or separate auditing mechanism for states in Indian federalism.
Question 31
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A
The powers are distributed between the union and state governments territorially
B
The union government and State government possess the powers over the entire territory of India
C
The central government has extra territorial jurisdiction that means that its laws govern not only persons and property within India but also Indian citizens and their properties located in any corner of the world.
D
The territorial jurisdiction of Parliament of course, is subject to certain limitations imposed by the constitution especially with regard to union territories and scheduled areas
Question 31 Explanation: 
The powers are distributed between the union and state governments territorially. The union government possess the powers over the entire territory of India while the states have jurisdiction over their own territories. The central government has extra territorial jurisdiction that means that its laws govern not only persons and property within India but also Indian citizens and their properties located in any corner of the world. The territorial jurisdiction of Parliament of course, is subject to certain limitations imposed by the constitution especially with regard to union territories and scheduled areas.
Question 32
Banking is placed in_____
A
State list
B
Central list
C
Concurrent list
D
None
Question 32 Explanation: 
List I (Union List) contains the subjects and powers exclusively allotted to the union parliament. There are 100 subjects here including defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency
Question 33
Which among the following are present in State list?
  1. public health
  2. public order
  3. forests
 
A
1, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
1 alone
D
2, 3
Question 33 Explanation: 
List II (State List) contains the subjects that are exclusively allotted to the state governments. There are 59 items including public order, and police, public health, local government, agriculture, forests, fisheries.
Question 34
When a clash occurs between Union and State over the legislative powers in Concurrent list whose decision will Prevail?  
A
State
B
Union
C
High or Supreme court decides
D
None
Question 34 Explanation: 
List III (Concurrent List) contains 52 items including Criminal law and procedure, Civil Procedure, marriage, education. This list is called as Concurrent List. Both the union and state governments have powers over these subjects. But when there occurs a clash between the union and state governments the law of the parliament will prevail.
Question 35
The Residuary powers which have not been mentioned in any if three list comes under____  
A
Union
B
State
C
Supreme Court
D
Election Commission
Question 35 Explanation: 
There is also another category called residuary powers. Any subject not mentioned in the above three lists will automatically come under the jurisdiction of the union government.
Question 36
Our Constitution broadly follows the legislative distribution of powers provided in____  
A
Government of India Act 1935
B
Government of India Act 1919
C
Queens Proclamation, 1858
D
Charter act, 1813
Question 36 Explanation: 
Our constitution broadly follows the legislative distribution of powers provided in the Government of India Act 1935 enacted during the British colonial era.
Question 37
When National emergency is declared, the state legislatures will be____
A
Diminished
B
Reduced with some exceptions
C
The State government can run with the help of President
D
The State government can run with the help of Governor
Question 37 Explanation: 
The power of the Union Parliament will be expanded and concomitantly the powers of the state legislatures will be diminished.
Question 38
After the declaration of article 356 emergency in a state, the of power of enacting state list of that state lies with?
A
President
B
Chief Justice
C
Parliament
D
Governor of the state
Question 38 Explanation: 
After the declaration of article 356 emergency in a state the President can declare that the parliament will enact on state list subjects for that state
Question 39
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A
When the President of India declares National emergency the President acquires the powers to legislate over the subjects in the State List.
B
The emergency is declared by the president to tackle problems like war, external aggression and armed rebellion that pose a danger to the existence of our nation.
C
When two or more states agree that their mutual interests will be served better, the Parliament can enact a common law for the desiring states on that subject even if it falls in the List II (State List).
D
None
Question 39 Explanation: 
When the President of India declares National Emergency the union parliament acquires the powers to legislate over the subjects in the State List. The emergency is declared by the president to tackle problems like war, external aggression and armed rebellion that pose a danger to the existence of our nation. When two or more states agree that their mutual interests will be served better if there is common law on a particular subject and request the union government to enact the needed law, the Parliament can enact a common law for the desiring states on that subject even if it falls in the List II (State List).
Question 40
The executive powers over the subjects in the Concurrent List is ordinarily with____
A
Union government
B
State government
C
Supreme Court
D
President
Question 40 Explanation: 
Succinctly it can be stated that the executive powers over the subjects in the Concurrent List is ordinarily with the state governments. Nevertheless, the union government retains powers to issue directions to the state governments in the execution of executive functions both in normal times and during emergencies
Question 41
On whose content the Union government can entrust its executive function to the state Government?
A
Governor of that state
B
President
C
Parliament
D
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Question 41 Explanation: 
The union government even without the getting the consent of the state government can entrust its executive function to the state government but with the consent of the parliament.
Question 42
The Financial distribution between centre state is based_____
A
Government of India Act, 1935
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Charter act, 1813
D
Irish Constitution
Question 42 Explanation: 
Indian constitution distributes financial powers between the union and states in a comprehensive arrangement that is broadly modelled on the 1935 Government of India Act
Question 43
Which of the following tax are allotted to central government?
  1. Corporation tax
  2. Custom tax
  3. sales tax
A
1, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
2, 3
D
2 alone
Question 43 Explanation: 
Certain taxes like Corporation tax and Custom tax are exclusively allotted to the central government.
Question 44
Which of the following tax are allotted to State government?
  1. sales tax
  2. Excise duties on medicine
 
A
1, 2
B
1 alone
C
2 alone
D
None
Question 44 Explanation: 
There are five important ways in which the tax revenues are distributed between the union and state governments. Certain taxes like sales tax are exclusively allotted to the states
Question 45
Which of the following tax are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the concerned states?  
A
stamp duties on Bills of Exchange
B
sales tax
C
taxes on the sale of advertisements in newspapers
D
all the above
Question 45 Explanation: 
Certain taxes are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the concerned states and the examples are stamp duties on Bills of Exchange and Excise duties on medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol.
Question 46
Which of the following tax is collected by Central government?  
A
taxes on the sale of advertisements in newspapers
B
tax on income other than an agricultural income
C
tax on agriculture
D
all the above
Question 46 Explanation: 
Certain taxes are levied and collected by the union government but the proceeds are assigned to the states in which they are levied like the taxes on the sale of advertisements in newspapers.
Question 47
Which of the following tax is shared between central and state government?  
A
tax on income other than an agricultural income
B
tax on agricultural income
C
stamp duties on preparations containing alcohol
D
none
Question 47 Explanation: 
Certain taxes are levied and collected by the state governments and are distributed between the union and state governments in a certain proportion like the tax on income other than an agricultural income.
Question 48
How many ways does tax revenues are distributed between state and central government?  
A
5
B
4
C
3
D
7
Question 48 Explanation: 
There are five important ways in which the tax revenues are distributed between the union and state governments.
Question 49
Which among the following are Non-tax revenue to the Central Government?
  1. Railways
  2. road transport
  3. electricity
 
A
1, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
1 alone
D
2, 3
Question 49 Explanation: 
The union government gets its revenue from the receipts from commercial and industrial undertakings relating to central subjects like Industrial Finance Corporation. It gets its revenue from Railways, Posts and Telegraphs, Broadcasting etc
Question 50
Which among the following are Non-tax revenue to the State Government?
  1. Forests
  2. Electricity
  3. Irrigation
   
A
1, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
1 alone
D
2, 3
Question 50 Explanation: 
The state governments get revenue from the receipts of commercial enterprises and industrial undertakings allotted to them. The sources among others include forests, irrigation, electricity, road transport.
Question 51
Which Article asks the union government to provide Grants-in Aid to some states?  
A
299
B
283
C
263
D
275
Question 51 Explanation: 
The constitution understands the greater financial needs of certain states and therefore the article 275 asks the union government to provide Grants-inAid to states especially the state of Assam keeping in mind the imperative of the development and welfare of the tribal population.
Question 52
How many times does President of India constitute a Finance Commission?  
A
Twice a year
B
Once in 5 years
C
Once a year
D
Twice in 5 years
Question 52 Explanation: 
The president of India has the right of constituting finance commission and he/she will constitute a Finance Commission once in five years.
Question 53
Which Article describes the finance commission?
A
289
B
280
C
380
D
270
Question 53 Explanation: 
The article 280 of the constitution describes the composition of the Finance Commission.
Question 54
How many members are there in the finance commission?  
A
1 + 3
B
1 + 4
C
1 + 5
D
1 + 9
Question 54 Explanation: 
Finance Commission will have one Chairman and four other members. The Chairman will be a person with experience in public affairs and the members will have experience in financial administration, special knowledge of economics, special knowledge of public accounts and government finances, and one member will have experience of a High Court judge.
Question 55
What among the following are recommendations made by planning commission?
  1. the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the centre and states
  2. Principles governing grants-in-aid
  3. Measures needed to increase the Consolidated Fund of India or states to supplement the resources the Panchayat Bodies
 
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 2
C
1, 3
D
2, 3
Question 55 Explanation: 
Finance Commission will provide recommendations in the following manner 1. for the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the centre and states 2. Principles governing grants-in-aid 3. Measures needed to increase the Consolidated Fund of India or states to supplement the resources the Panchayat Bodies 4. measures needed to increase the Consolidated Fund of India or states to supplement the resources the Urban Local Bodies.
Question 56
The American Constitutional expert Granville Austin described Indian federal system as_
A
Pure Federalism
B
Corporate Federalism
C
Co-operative Federalism
D
None
Question 56 Explanation: 
The American Constitutional expert Granville Austin described Indian federal system as Cooperative Federalism designed to promote cooperation between the centre and states.
Question 57
Which Article provides president to form a Inter-state council?  
A
263
B
326
C
236
D
222
Question 57 Explanation: 
The article 263 of the constitution says that the President of India can establish the Inter-State Council to serve public interests.
Question 58
How many functions and duties are assigned to Inter-state council?  
A
5
B
6
C
2
D
3
Question 58 Explanation: 
To serve public interests, there are three functions and duties assigned to the Inter State Council.
Question 59
Which among the following is not a function of Inter-state council?  
A
To enquire into and advise upon disputes among the states
B
To investigate and discuss the subjects that are common to the union and state governments
C
To make suggestion to state government for creating upper house in state legislature
D
To make recommendations to the President for better co-ordination on any particular subjects among the state governments.
Question 59 Explanation: 
The functions and duties assigned to the Inter State Council a) To enquire into and advise upon disputes among the states b) To investigate and discuss the subjects that are common to the union and state governments c) To make recommendations to the President for better co-ordination on any particular subjects among the state governments.
Question 60
The inter state council is formed on the recommendation of_____  
A
Rajamannar Committee
B
Punchhi Commission
C
Venkatachaliah Commission
D
Sarkaria Commission
Question 60 Explanation: 
The holistic Inter State Council was established in early nineties to deal with general cooperation among the units of Indian federal system on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission.
Question 61
Who among the following will be the chairperson of inter-state council?  
A
President
B
Prime minister
C
Retired judge of court
D
Chef justice
Question 61 Explanation: 
The Prime Minister functions as the chairperson of the council. The Chief Ministers of all the states and Union Territories with Legislative Assemblies, six cabinet ministers of the union government, administrators of the Union Territories without Legislative Assemblies and Governors of states under President’s Rule.
Question 62
Who act as a standing committee as part of the Inter State Council to promote cooperation among the members of the federal system?  
A
union Home Minister
B
five cabinet ministers
C
nine Chief Ministers
D
all the above
Question 62 Explanation: 
A Standing Committee consisting of the with union Home Minister, five other cabinet ministers and nine Chief Ministers also works as part of the Inter State Council to promote cooperation among the members of the federal system.
Question 63
The Zonal Councils were established in____  
A
1966
B
1976
C
1956
D
1974
Question 63 Explanation: 
The Zonal Councils were established by the States Reorganization Act in 1956 to achieve cooperation and co-ordination among states.
Question 64
Who described their objective as to “develop the habit of cooperative working”?  
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
C
B.R. Ambedkar
D
Rajendra Prasad
Question 64 Explanation: 
Zonal Councils were created in the backdrop of linguistic reorganization of India and the first Prime Minister of India Jawaharlal Nehru described their objective as to “develop the habit of cooperative working”.
Question 65
Originally how many Zonal councils were created?  
A
10
B
8
C
5
D
6
Question 65 Explanation: 
Originally five Zonal Councils were created and later on in 1971 one more Zonal Council was established for the North Eastern States.
Question 66
Which among the following is not a Zonal council?  
A
Northern Zonal Council
B
Eastern Zonal Council
C
South Central Zonal Council
D
Central Zonal Council
Question 66 Explanation: 
The 6 Zonal Councils are: 1. Northern Zonal Council 2. Southern Zonal Council 3. Eastern Zonal Council 4. Western Zonal Council 5. Central Zonal Council 6. North Eastern Zonal Council
Question 67
Who will be the Common Chairperson of all the Zonal Councils?  
A
President
B
Prime minister
C
Home minister
D
Chief Justice of Supreme court
Question 67 Explanation: 
The Union Home Minister will be the common Chairperson of all the Zonal Councils. Additionally, each Zonal Council will consist of the Chief Minister and two other Ministers of each state and the Administrator of the Union Territory in the zone.
Question 68
What among the following issues will Zonal Councils will discuss?
  1. economic and social planning
  2. border disputes
  3. inert-state transport
 
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 2
C
2, 3
D
2 alone
Question 68 Explanation: 
The Zonal Councils will discuss and suggest measures to promote cooperation among the members in areas like economic and social planning, border disputes, inert-state transport etc.
Question 69
In which year the River Boards Act was passed?  
A
1996
B
1956
C
1976
D
1974
Question 69 Explanation: 
The River Boards Act, 1956 establishes River Boards to provide advice to the concerned governments for the regulation of an interstate river or river valley.
Question 70
Which Article enacted the formation of inter state water dispute act, 1956?  
A
262
B
226
C
126
D
215
Question 70 Explanation: 
The inter State Water Disputes Act 1956 was enacted in accordance with the article 262 of the constitution that mandated that all interstate river disputes should be resolved through negotiations.
Question 71
In which year NITI Aayog was formed?  
A
2014
B
2015
C
2016
D
2017
Question 71 Explanation: 
The union government created the National Commission for Transforming India after dissolving the Planning Commission in 2015
Question 72
Who is the ex officio chairman of NITI Aayog?  
A
President
B
Vice- President
C
Prime Minster
D
Home Minister
Question 72 Explanation: 
The Prime Minister is the ex officio chairman and the first meeting of NITI Aayog was chaired by Narendra Modi on 8 February 2015.
Question 73
Who among the following are permanent members of NITI Aayog?
  1. Chief Ministers of all the states
  2. Chief Ministers of the Union Territories
  3. Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  4. Chief Justice of India
 
A
1, 2, 3, 4
B
1, 2, 3
C
2, 3
D
1 alone
Question 73 Explanation: 
The permanent members of the governing council are all the Chief Ministers of all the states, Chief Ministers of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry and the Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Question 74
Which of the states are involved in Cauvery dispute?
  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Karnataka
  3. Kerala
  4. Puducherry
 
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 2
C
1, 2, 3, 4
D
2, 3, 4
Question 74 Explanation: 
The Cauvery dispute involving Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Puducherry Union Territory
Question 75
Which of the states are involved in Vamsadara River dispute?
  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Odisha
  3. Karnataka
 
A
1, 2, 3
B
2, 3
C
1, 2
D
1, 3
Question 75 Explanation: 
Inter State River Water Disputes play a crucial role in the evolution of federalism in Indian politics. Vamsadara River dispute involving Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
Question 76
Which of the states are involved in Mahadayi river?
  1. Goa
  2. Karnataka
  3. Maharashtra
 
A
1, 2, 3
B
2, 3
C
1, 2
D
1, 3
Question 76 Explanation: 
Sutlej dispute involving Punjab, Haryana, Mahadayi river dispute involving Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka are the major ones
Question 77
Who among the following has the right of establishing a Tribunal?  
A
Union government
B
State government
C
Supreme court
D
High court
Question 77 Explanation: 
Empowered by the article 262 of the constitution the parliament enacted inter – state river water dispute act, 1956. This act enables the union govt. to establish a Tribunal for the adjudication of an interstate river water dispute.
Question 78
Who will nominate a person to head the water dispute Tribunal?  
A
Prime minister
B
President
C
Chief justice of India
D
Comptroller and Auditor general of India
Question 78 Explanation: 
When the union govt. decides to constitute a Tribunal the Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India will nominate a person to head it.
Question 79
Initially number of members were in inter-state water dispute tribunals?  
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 79 Explanation: 
The Tribunal will always consist of one person only. Later on, this provision was amended to include more members.
Question 80
Who will be chosen as the member of Inter-state water dispute tribunal?  
A
Ex. Member of Parliament
B
President
C
sitting or retired Judge of the Supreme Court and High Courts
D
members of Rajya Sabha
Question 80 Explanation: 
The Chief Justice will choose from the sitting or retired Judge of the Supreme Court and High Courts. The decision of the Tribunal shall be published in the in the official Gazette and there after that decision shall be final and binding on the parties to the dispute.
Question 81
Who has the jurisdiction over the over any inter-state water dispute?
  1. Supreme court
  2. High court of concern states
 
A
1, 2
B
1 alone
C
2 alone
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 81 Explanation: 
Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall have jurisdiction over any inter-state water dispute referred to a tribunal under the act. No tribunal can be constituted for any dispute that has been placed for arbitration under the river water board act – 1955.
Question 82
When did the agreement between Madras Presidency and the Princely Sate of Mysore Lapsed?  
A
1995
B
1974
C
1924
D
1947
Question 82 Explanation: 
The Madras Presidency and the Princely Sate of Mysore signed an agreement in 1924 for sharing the waters. After being in operation for fifty years the agreement lapsed in 1974.
Question 83
The Cauvery River Water Tribunal was established in____  
A
1995
B
1991
C
1996
D
2012
Question 83 Explanation: 
The Inter State River Water Disputes Act 1956 allows for the formation of a tribunal for resolving the river water disputes. The Cauvery River Water Tribunal was established in 1991 to solve the issue.
Question 84
In which year the Cauvery River Water Tribunal gave the final verdict?  
A
2000
B
2007
C
2014
D
2009
Question 84 Explanation: 
The Cauvery River Water Tribunal gave the final Award in 2007. It provided a distress formula to share the waters in years when rainfall is low allowing for proportionate sharing of the available water.
Question 85
Across which border Cauvery River Tribunal stipulated a monthly release of water?  
A
Hoogaenagal
B
Biligundlu
C
Hosur
D
Krishnagiri
Question 85 Explanation: 
The Cauvery River Water Tribunal stipulated a monthly release of water from Karnataka to Tamil Nadu across the border in Biligundlu. It fixed the share of each state from Cauvery River.
Question 86
Who was provided power to manage the tricky problem of sharing the Cauvery water?
A
Karnataka
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Supreme court
D
Cauvery Water Management Board
Question 86 Explanation: 
The Tribunal provided a Cauvery Water Management Board to manage the tricky problem of sharing the water.
Question 87
The Cauvery Water Management Authority and the Cauvery Water Regulation Committee were established in_____  
A
2007
B
2018
C
2019
D
1991
Question 87 Explanation: 
The Cauvery Water Management Authority and the Cauvery Water Regulation Committee were established in 2018 to implement the Award of the Tribunal as modified by the Supreme Court
Question 88
At present Tamil Nadu is entitled to get_____ tmcft of water  
A
500
B
177.25
C
277.25
D
404.25
Question 88 Explanation: 
At present Tamil Nadu is entitled to get 177.25 tmcft of water from Karnataka as measured in Biligundlu border.
Question 89
The total share for Cauvery water allotted to Tamil Nadu is____ tmcft  
A
177.25
B
404.25
C
277.25
D
30
Question 89 Explanation: 
The total share for Cauvery water allotted to Tamil Nadu is 404.25 tmcft. Karnataka is entitled to get 284.25 tmcft
Question 90
The share of Puducherry in Cauvery is__ tmcft  
A
30
B
10
C
7
D
15
Question 90 Explanation: 
Kerala’s share is 30 tmcft and the fourth disputant Puducherry will get 7 tmcft.
Question 91
In which year Punchhi Commission submitted its report?  
A
2010
B
2008
C
2013
D
2016
Question 91 Explanation: 
Punchhi Commission had three more members and a Secretary and presented its report in 2010.
Question 92
Who has discretionary power to reserve a bill of the state legislature?  
A
Governor
B
President
C
Chief Justice of high court
D
Prime minister
Question 92 Explanation: 
The Governor of a state has discretionary power to reserve a bill of the state legislature for the consideration of the President. Whenever a money bill of the state legislature is reserved by the Governor the President may either declare or withhold his assent.
Question 93
Who has the right of dismissing the officers to these services are recruited by the union  government and posted in the states?
  1. State government
  2. Central government
 
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 93 Explanation: 
All India Services are created under article 312 of the constitution. The officers to these services are recruited by the union government and posted in the states. The state governments have powers of posting, transfer while the central government alone has powers to dismiss them.
Question 94
Which Commission of Tamil Nadu government suggested a complete revamping in the structure and position of All India Services?  
A
Sarkaria
B
Punchhi
C
Venkatachaliah
D
Rajamannar
Question 94 Explanation: 
As the ultimate control over the All India Services are with the central government the state governments have sought changes in the system and the Rajamannar Commission of Tamil Nadu government suggested a complete revamping in the structure and position of All India Services
Question 95
The First Administrative Reforms Commission was formed in____  
A
1996
B
1966
C
1976
D
1956
Question 95 Explanation: 
The First Administrative Reforms Commission was formed in 1966 initially under the leadership of Morarji Desai and later on K. Hanumanthaiah.
Question 96
Which government established the Rajamannar committee?  
A
Union
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Kerala
D
Karnataka
Question 96 Explanation: 
The Tamil Nadu government established the Rajamannar committee to analyse and provide recommendations for restructuring the centre-state relations in our constitution
Question 97
Rajamannar committee submitted its report to the government in_____  
A
1976
B
1971
C
1982
D
1986
Question 97 Explanation: 
Rajamannar committee submitted its report to the government in 1971 marking a great milestone in the history of autonomy debate in the country.
Question 98
The Sarkaria commission was constituted in_____  
A
1971
B
1986
C
1983
D
1993
Question 98 Explanation: 
The union government in the backdrop of many reform demands in federal domain to review the centre state relations constituted a commission under the chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria in 1983.
Question 99
In which year Punchhi Commission was constituted?  
A
1997
B
2007
C
2014
D
2005
Question 99 Explanation: 
e union government constituted a commission under the leadership of Justice Madan Mohan Punchchi, the former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in 2007.
Question 100
During Whose Prime Ministry National Commission to review the working of the Constitution was constituted?  
A
Narendra Modi
B
Manmohan Singh
C
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
D
Narishama Rao
Question 100 Explanation: 
The National Commission to review the working of the Constitution (NCRWC) also known as Justice Manepalli Narayana Rao Venkatachaliah Commission was set up by a resolution of the NDA Government of India led by Atal Bihari Vajpayee on 22 February 2000 for suggesting possible amendments to the Constitution of India.
Question 101
Punchhi Commission recommended changes in which articles?
  1. 356
  2. 355
  3. 360
 
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 2
C
1, 3
D
2, 3
Question 101 Explanation: 
Punchhi Commission wanted to introduce changes in articles 355 and 356 so that insurgency or problem afflicted areas or districts in a state rather than the entire state can be brought under emergency as a strategy to localize emergency and efficiently handle insurgency or troubles.
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