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Geography Part 4 Revision Test In English

Geography Part 4 Revision Test in English

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Question 1
Consider the following and find out the wrong from the following.
  1. Birth rate is live birth in an year for every 1000 men in total population
  2. Birth rate is live birth in an year for every 1000 women in total population
  3. Birth rate is live birth in an year for every 100 men in total population
  4. Birth rate is live birth in an year for every 100 women in total population.
A
2 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 3 and 4 only
Question 1 Explanation: 
Birth rate is live birth in an year for every 1000 women in total population. The growth of population or natural increase in population depends on birth and death rate.
Question 2
The difference between birth rate and death rate is termed as
A
Growth rate
B
Decline rate
C
Birth deaths
D
None of the above
Question 2 Explanation: 
The difference between birth rate and death rate is termed as growth rate.
Question 3
____ is a study of demographic phenomena which includes natality, morality, growth rates etc., through both space and time.
A
Physical geography
B
Rock geography
C
Population geography
D
None of the above
Question 3 Explanation: 
Population Geography is a study of demographic phenomena which includes natality, morality, growth rates etc., through both space and time. Increase (or) decrease in population indicates population distribution and growth.
Question 4
The human race ‘Caucasoid’ are found in
A
Australia
B
Europe
C
Asian
D
African
Question 4 Explanation: 
The Caucasoid is known as European race. This group is the one with fair skin and dark brown eyes, wavy hair and narrow nose. The Caucasoid are also found in Eurasia.
Question 5
Which of the following race has light yellow to brown skin, straight hair, flat face, broad head, medium nose?
A
Caucasoid
B
Mongoloid
C
Australoid
D
Negroid
Question 5 Explanation: 
The mongoloid race is commonly known as the Asian-American race. The mongoloid have the light yellow to brown skin, straight hair, flat face, broad head and medium nose. Such people are found in Asia and Arctic region.
Question 6
Match the following
  • Religion                             Place of worship
  1. Zooroqstrianism                 Vihara
  2. Juadism                             Agiyari
  3. Jainism                              Synagogue
  4. Buddhism                          Basadi
 
A
2143
B
2341
C
1423
D
3214
Question 7
Match the following
  1. World religious day                                               21st May
  2. World population day                                        3rd Sunday of January
  3. International mother language day                 21st  February
  4. World cultural diversity day                              11th  July
A
2431
B
4312
C
2134
D
4312
Question 8
Find out from the following the factors influencing rural settlement
  1. Nature of topography
  2. Local weather Condition
  3. Social organization
  4. Soil and water resources
A
1,3 and 4
B
1,2 and 3
C
2,3 and 4
D
All the above
Question 8 Explanation: 
Factors Influencing Rural Settlement Nature of topography Local weather Condition Soil and water resources Social organisation Economic condition
Question 9
Thiruverkadu in Tamil nadu is an example or which of the following settlements
A
Round settlement
B
Linear settlement
C
Pilgrim settlement
D
Wet point settlement
Question 9 Explanation: 
Pilgrim settlement may come up around a place of worship(or) any spot with a religious significance. E.g. Thiruverkadu in Tamil Nadu.
Question 10
Dispersed settlements are found in which of the following areas?
  1. Areas of extreme climate
  2. Hilly tracts
  3. Thick forests
  4. Areas having extensive cultivation
A
1,2 and 4
B
1,3 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
All the above
Question 10 Explanation: 
Dispersed settlements are generally found in the areas of extreme climate, hilly tracts, thick forests, grasslands, areas of extensive cultivation. In these settlements, houses are spaced far apart and after interspersed with fields. In India this type of human settlement is found in the northern kosi tract, the Ganga delta ,the Thar Desert of Rajasthan and the foot hills of Himalayas and the Niligris.
Question 11
What is the minimum prescribed population threshold for a town
A
10000
B
500
C
5000
D
50000
Question 11 Explanation: 
Town is a general name for an urban place, usually a settlement meeting a prescribed minimum population threshold. Population more than 5000 people. Based on the function that cities perform they can be classified into the following types of towns, such as administrative, cantonment, academic etc.,
Question 12
For considering a place as city, the population of the city should be
A
Lesser than 100000
B
Greater than 10000
C
Greater than 1000000
D
Greater than 100000
Question 12 Explanation: 
The term City is generally applied to large urban places with no strict definitions to separate if from smaller town. City is a nucleated settlement which multifunctional in character, including an established central business district. In India an urban place with more than one lakh population is considered as a city (Population more than 1,00,000).
Question 13
When two or more cities large has a population exceeding 10 million it is termed as
A
Mega city
B
Conurbation
C
Megalopolis
D
Satellite town
Question 13 Explanation: 
The word megalopolis is given for a large conurbation, when two or more large cities whose total population exceeds ten million. The region made up of cities between Boston and Washington D.C is a well-known megalopolis. In India, Kolkata is the largest urban area which is a megalopolis. Gandhinagar, Surat, Vadodara, Rajput in Gujarat are the important megalopolis cities in India.
Question 14
From the following find out the example for conurbation?
  1. West midland in England
  2. Ruhr in Germany
  3. Mumbai
  4. Faridabad
A
2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4
C
1,2 and 3
D
All the above
Question 14 Explanation: 
A Conurbation is a region comprising of a number of cities, large town, and other urban areas that through population growth and physical expansion have merged to form one continuous urban (or) industrially developed area. West Midland in England, the Ruhr in Germany, Randstad in the Netherlands are example of conurbations. Mumbai in Maharashtra, Gurgaon, Faridabad in Haryana, Noida in Uttar Pradesh are the conurbation cities of India.
Question 15
Where does a satellite town is located ?
A
Inside a city
B
Outside the city
C
Nearby to town
D
All the above
Question 15 Explanation: 
A satellite town is a town designed to house the over population of a major city, but is located well beyond the limits of that city. Satellite towns are generally located outside the rural urban fringe.
Question 16
The French word ‘Environ’ in Environment means
A
Encircled
B
Surround
C
Living things
D
Both a and b
Question 16 Explanation: 
Environment is a set of relationships between man and nature. Man has survived through the ages, dwelling within his surrounding called the environment. The word ‘environment’ is derived from the French word ‘environ’ meaning encircled or surrounded. Environment includes both living (biotic) and non living (abiotic) components.
Question 17
Which of the following conference declared ‘man as both creator and moulder of his environment’.
A
Ramsar convention
B
Stockholm conference
C
Nations conference in UNCED
D
Both b and c
Question 17 Explanation: 
The Stockholm Conference, 1972, declared man as both a creator and moulder of his environment. ‘The Earth Summit’, formally known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) was held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
Question 18
Which of the following is called as the statistical study of human population?
A
Populography
B
Demography
C
Fotography
D
None of the above
Question 18 Explanation: 
In ancient Greek, ‘demos’ means people and ‘graphis’ means study of measurement. So, ‘Demography’ is the statistical study of human population.
Question 19
The average number of children born per woman during her child bearing years (usually ages 15 to 44) is known as
A
Birth rate
B
Total fertility rate
C
Infant mortality
D
Both a and c
Question 19 Explanation: 
The average number of children born per woman during her child bearing years (usually ages 15 to 44) is known as total fertility rate.
Question 20
What is the sex ratio of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census
A
995:1000
B
99:100
C
996:1000
D
None of the above
Question 21
Life expectancy of a person in Tamil Nadu is
A
90 years
B
85.3 years
C
70.6 years
D
77.9 years
Question 22
The black death is attributed to the outbreak of______
A
Dengue
B
Plague
C
Rabies
D
Cholera
Question 22 Explanation: 
The black death is estimated to have killed 30 - 60 percent of Europe's total population during the 14th century. The dominant for black death is attributed to the outbreak of plague.
Question 23
The countries of the world take census every______
A
5 to 10 years
B
10 to 15 years
C
5 to 15 years
D
10 to 20 years
Question 23 Explanation: 
Census is an official enumeration of population carried out periodically. It records, information about the characteristics of population such as age, sex, literacy and occupation. Different countries of the world conduct census every 5 to 10 years as recommended by the United Nations.
Question 24
In India first census was carried out in the year_____
A
1872
B
1972
C
1889
D
1989
Question 24 Explanation: 
In India, the first census was carried out in the year 1872.Censuses have been conducted regularly every tenth year since 1881. The Indian Census is the most comprehensive source of demographic, social and economic data.
Question 25
The first country in the modern world to conduct census was_____
A
India
B
Denmark
C
England
D
USA
Question 25 Explanation: 
The first known census was undertaken nearly six thousand years ago by the Babylonians in 3800 BC (BCE). Denmark was the first country in the modern world to conduct a census.
Question 26
The world population day is observed on_____
A
13th July
B
11th July
C
19th July
D
10th July
Question 26 Explanation: 
The World Population Day is observed on 11th July every year. It seeks to raise awareness of global population issues. The United Nations Development Programme started celebrating this event from the year 1989.
Question 27
Which of the following does not fall under moderate density area?
A
Angola
B
Nigeria
C
North western Europe
D
Zambia
Question 27 Explanation: 
The world’s population density is divided into three main groups. Areas of high density (above 50 people per sq.km) - East Asia, South Asia, North West Europe & Eastern North America. Areas of moderate density (10 to 50 people per sq.km) - The sub-tropical regions like Angola, Congo, Nigeria and Zambia in Africa. Areas of low density (less than 10 people per sq.km) - Central Africa, Western Australia, Northern Russia, Canada, etc...
Question 28
The official population policy of India was implemented in___
A
1950
B
1952
C
1947
D
1990
Question 28 Explanation: 
‘India has an official population policy implemented in 1952. India was the first country to announce such a policy. The main objective of this policy was to slow down the rate of population growth, through promotion of various birth control measures.
Question 29
In which pattern the houses are along the railways and roads?
A
Linear pattern
B
Rectangular pattern
C
Star-like pattern
D
Nebular pattern
Question 29 Explanation: 
In a linear pattern, the houses are located along a road, railway line and along the edge of the river valley or along a levee.
Question 30
In which pattern the arrangement of roads is/are almost circular?
A
Rectangular pattern
B
Circular or semi-circular pattern
C
Nebular pattern
D
Cross-shaped pattern
Question 30 Explanation: 
The arrangement of roads is almost circular which ends at the central location or nucleus of the settlement around the house of the main landlord of the village or around a mosque, temple or church.
Question 31
The pattern of settlement around the lakes, ponds and sea-coast is called as_____
A
Circular or semi-circular pattern
B
Y-shaped pattern
C
Star-like pattern
D
Rectangular pattern
Question 31 Explanation: 
The pattern of settlement that is found around the lakes, ponds and sea coasts are called circular or semi-circular pattern.
Question 32
The cities with a population more than 50 lakh population are called as___
A
Town
B
Metropolitan
C
Megacities
D
Conurbation
Question 32 Explanation: 
Cities with more than 50 lakh population are called Megacities. E.g.: Greater Chennai. Cities accommodating population between 10 lakhs and 50 lakhs are metropolitan cities. E.g.: Madurai
Question 33
Which of the following is the world’s largest city?
A
Chennai
B
Delhi
C
Tokyo
D
Beijing
Question 33 Explanation: 
Damascus is widely believed to be the oldest, continuously inhabited city in the world, dating back to at least 11, 000 years. Tokyo is the world's largest city with the greater Tokyo area, housing about 38 million inhabitants.
Question 34
Which of the following does not fall under tertiary activity?
A
Automobile manufacturing
B
Transport
C
Communication
D
Banking
Question 34 Explanation: 
Activities which by themselves do not produce goods, but support the process of production are called tertiary activities. For example: Transport, communication, banking, storage and trade.
Question 35
Scientist fall under which kind of economic activity?
A
Primary
B
Secondary
C
Quinary
D
Tertiary
Question 35 Explanation: 
The activities that focus on the creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas are called quinary activities. It includes the highest levels of decision making in a society or economy. E.g.: Senior business executives, scientists and policy makers in the Government.
Question 36
Van Mahotsav festival is celebrated between_____
A
1st July to 4th July
B
1st July to 7th July
C
1st June to 7th June
D
7th July to 14th July
Question 36 Explanation: 
Van Mahotsav is a weeklong festival celebrated in India. This is a festival of life and is usually celebrated between 1st July and 7th July.
Question 37
Which of the following disease is caused by air pollution?
A
Cholera
B
Rabies
C
Jaundice
D
Plague
Question 37 Explanation: 
The main pathological effects caused by air pollutants, particularly oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon-di- oxide, include respiratory disorders, jaundice, irritation of eyes and throat, headache, cancer and even death.
Question 38
Ozone gas is extremely rare in the atmosphere, representing just _____ out of every 10 million molecules.
A
4
B
3
C
5
D
10
Question 38 Explanation: 
Ozone is a poisonous gas made up of molecules consisting of three oxygen atoms (O3). This gas is extremely rare in the atmosphere, representing just three out of every 10 million molecules.
Question 39
The range over which ozone particles are scattered is____
A
19 to 30 Km
B
19 to 30 meters
C
10 to 30 Km
D
10 to 20 meters
Question 39 Explanation: 
The ozone layer is not really a layer at all, but has become known as such because most ozone particles are scattered between 19 and 30 kilometer up in the earth's atmosphere, in a region called the stratosphere.
Question 40
Methane traps_____ times stronger than carbon dioxide in terms of trapping heat.
A
30
B
25
C
15
D
10
Question 40 Explanation: 
Methane is one of the most important chemicals used in fracking process. Methane is 25 times stronger than carbon di-oxide in terms of trapping heat.
Question 41
______ percentage of urban wards have sewer network.
A
80
B
56.4
C
46.5
D
80.9
Question 41 Explanation: 
Rural India has hardly any arrangement to dispose-off liquid waste. Only 56.4% of the urban wards have a sewer network. According to estimates, about 80% of the sewage in India flows into rivers, lakes and ponds. This sewage is untreated and pollutes water bodies.
Question 42
International day for the preservation of ozone is on_____
A
16th July
B
16th September
C
16th November
D
16th January
Question 42 Explanation: 
September 16 was designated by the United Nations General Assembly as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer. This designation had been made on December 19, 2000.
Question 43
Australia with an average density of population of _______ persons per sq.km is one of the most sparsely populated countries of the world.
A
Three
B
Two
C
Ten
D
Twenty
Question 43 Explanation: 
Australia with an average density of population of 2 persons per sq.km is one of the most sparsely populated countries of the world. However, inhabitants of these areas have high standard of living.
Question 44
Which among the following country has lowest fertility rate?
A
Niger
B
India
C
Singapore
D
Russia
Question 44 Explanation: 
Fertility Rate is the number of live births expected per 1000 women in their life times in a specified geographic area and for a specific point in time, usually a calendar year. Niger has the highest fertility rate of 6.49 while Singapore has the lowest fertility rate of 0.83.
Question 45
The age of working age population is____
A
18-64
B
15-64
C
18-60
D
15-60
Question 45 Explanation: 
Number of dependents in a population divided by the number of working age people. It’s a calculation which groups those aged under 15 with those over 65 years as the ‘dependants’ and classifying those aged 15-64 years as 'the working-age population'.
Question 46
Which of the following country has lowest literacy ratio(as of 2015)?
A
Niger
B
India
C
Burkina
D
China
Question 46 Explanation: 
Adult literacy is one of the factors in measuring the Human Development Index (HDI) of each nation, along with life expectancy, education, and standard of living. Burkina faso has the lowest literacy rate of 21.8% (2015).
Question 47
As of 2015 the country which has highest life expectancy?
A
India
B
China
C
Monaco
D
Chad
Question 47 Explanation: 
Life expectancy equals the average number of years a person born in a given country is expected to live. As of 2015, the country with the highest life expectancy is Monaco at 89.52 years; the country with the lowest is Chad at 49.81 years.
Question 48
The percentage of population of India and china of the total global population is______
A
19, 22
B
19, 18
C
18, 19
D
22, 19
Question 48 Explanation: 
China (with 1.4 billion inhabitants) and India (1.3 billion inhabitants) remain the two most populous countries, comprising 19% and 18% of the total global population respectively.
Question 49
In which year the population of India is expected to surpass china?
A
2022
B
2030
C
2024
D
2050
Question 49 Explanation: 
In roughly seven years, or around 2024, the population of India is expected to surpass that of China.
Question 50
Which of the following country is expected to surpass the population of USA?
A
Nigeria
B
China
C
Russia
D
Australia
Question 50 Explanation: 
Among the ten largest countries worldwide, Nigeria is growing the most rapidly. Consequently, the population of Nigeria, currently the world’s 7th largest, is projected to surpass that of the United States and become the third largest country in the world shortly before 2050.
Question 51
Between 2017 and 2050, the population of 26 African countries are projected to expand at least ______ their current size.
A
Triple
B
1.5 times
C
Double
D
Half
Question 51 Explanation: 
Africa continues to experience high rates of population growth. Between 2017 and 2050, the populations of 26 African countries are projected to expand to at least double their current size.
Question 52
Currently (2019), Population of the world is growing at a rate of_____
A
1.5
B
1.9
C
1.09
D
2.09
Question 52 Explanation: 
Population in the world is currently (2019) growing at a rate of around 1.09% per year (down from 1.12% in 2017 and 1.14% in 2016). It is estimated to reach 1% by 2023, less than 0.5% by 2052, and 0.25% in 2076. In 2100, it should be only 0.09% or an addition of only 10 million people to a total population of 11.2 billion. World population will therefore, continue to grow in the 21st century.
Question 53
Population of country in how many years if its growth rate is1%
A
80
B
100
C
70
D
10
Question 53 Explanation: 
Doubling time is the amount of time it takes for a given quantity of population to double in size at a constant growth rate. We can find the doubling time for a population undergoing exponential growth by using the Rule of 70. It is because the population of a country becomes double in 70 years if the growth rate is 1%. Thus, we divide 70 by the growth rate and we get the doubling time of population growth rate.
Question 54
World population has doubled in ____ years from 3 billion to 6 billion
A
70
B
40
C
80
D
90
Question 54 Explanation: 
World population has doubled in 40 years from 1959 (3 billion) to 1999 (6 billion). It is now estimated that it will take another nearly 40 years to increase by another 50% to become 9 billion by 2037.
Question 55
The current world population as of feb 2019 is___
A
8.7 billion
B
7.7 billion
C
6.7 billion
D
7 billion
Question 55 Explanation: 
The current world population is 7.7 billion as of Feb 2019 according to the most recent United Nations estimates. The United Nations projects world population to reach 8 billion in 2023 and 10 billion in the year 2056.
Question 56
Which of the following state in the country has highest sex ratio?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Kerala
C
Karnataka
D
UP
Question 56 Explanation: 
Kerala has the highest sex ratio in the country with 1084 females for 1000 males followed by Puducherry with 1037 females for 1000 males and Tamil Nadu with 996 females for 1000 males.
Question 57
The term opposite of transgender is____
A
Homo-gender
B
Hetero-gender
C
Cisgender
D
Calio-gender
Question 57 Explanation: 
Cisgender (often abbreviated to simply cis) is a term for people whose gender identity matches the sex that they were assigned at birth. It is the opposite of the term transgender.
Question 58
The state with least literacy rate in India is_____
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Bihar
D
Odisha
Question 58 Explanation: 
India's literacy rate is at 74.04%. Kerala has achieved a literacy rate of 93.91%. Bihar is the least literate state in India, with a literacy of 63.82%.
Question 59
Which among the following state contributes about 70% of illiterates?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Uttra Pradesh
C
Kerala
D
New Delhi
Question 59 Explanation: 
Six Indian states account for about 70% of all illiterates in India: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal. Slightly less than half of all Indian illiterates (48.12%) are in the six Hindi-speaking states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh.
Question 60
Which of the following state has highest literacy rate?(as per 2011 census)
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Tripura
D
Mizoram
Question 60 Explanation: 
Presently Tripura has the highest literacyrate in India, 94.65 percent. According to the 2011 census, literacy level was 93.91percent in Kerala and 91.58 percent inMizoram, among the most literate states in the country.
Question 61
Which of the following country has highest rate of emigration problem?
A
India
B
Russia
C
Canada
D
Mexico
Question 61 Explanation: 
Mexico’s emigration problem is a unique one, with more than 98% of all Mexican migrants living in the U.S.A, the country with which Mexico shares a border that runs 3110 km in length.
Question 62
Find out the pull factors of migration from the following?
  1. Not enough jobs
  2. Famine
  3. Better living conditions
  4. Chances of finding courtship
A
2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
All the above
Question 62 Explanation: 
Pull Factors: job opportunities, better living conditions, political and or religious freedom, enjoyment, education, better medical care, security, family links, industry, better chances of finding courtship.
Question 63
From the following find out the impacts of overpopulation
A
Climate change and global warming
B
Loss of biodiversity
C
Depletion of natural resources
D
All the above
Question 63 Explanation: 
Impacts of Overpopulation Depletion of Natural Resources Accelerated Habitat Loss Amplified Climate Change and Global warming Loss of Biodiversity Decrease of fresh water Lower Life Expectancy and Diminished Quality of Life
Question 64
______ is the spread of cultural beliefs and social activities from out group of people to another.
A
Cultural change
B
Cultural diffusion
C
Cultural variation
D
Cultural landscape
Question 64 Explanation: 
Cultural diffusion is the spread of cultural beliefs and social activities from out group of people to another. Mixing of world culture through different ethnicities, religions and nationalities has only increases with advanced communication, transport and technology.
Question 65
_______ have been defined by the World Heritage Committee as “Cultural  properties representing the combined works of nature and of man”.
A
Cultural change
B
Cultural landscape
C
Cultural diffusion
D
Cultural interaction
Question 65 Explanation: 
Cultural Landscapes have been defined by the World Heritage Committee as “cultural properties representing the combined works of nature and of man”.
Question 66
Find out the wrong one regarding the categories extracted from the Committee’s Operational Guidelines.
  1. A landscape designed and created not intentionally by man.
  2. An “organically evolved landscape” which may be a “relict (or fossil) landscape” or a “continuing landscape.
  3. An “associative cultural landscape” which may be valued because of the “religious, artistic or cultural associations of the natural element”.
A
All the above
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
3 only
Question 66 Explanation: 
The three categories extracted from the Committee’s Operational Guidelines, are as follows: “A landscape designed and created intentionally by man”. (ii) An “organically evolved landscape” which may be a “relict (or fossil) landscape” or a “continuing landscape”. An “associative cultural landscape” which may be valued because of the “religious, artistic or cultural associations of the natural element”.
Question 67
_____ plays great force in socialization and historical transmission, which is the primary instrument for transmitting culture. Human can bind any group of people through the network of interaction.
A
Culture
B
Custom
C
Language
D
Norms
Question 67 Explanation: 
Language plays great force in socialization and historical transmission, which is the primary instrument for transmitting culture. Human can bind any group of people through the network of interaction. Languages are in written or oral form. India (780) has the world's second highest number of languages, after Papua New Guinea (839).
Question 68
_____ is the established pattern of behavior that can be objectively verified within a particular social setting.
A
Norms
B
Rules
C
Customs
D
Heritage
Question 68 Explanation: 
Custom in law is the established pattern of behavior that can be objectively verified within a particular social setting. A claim can be carried out in defense of what has always been done and accepted by law. It becomes characteristic of the group of people performing the act.
Question 69
How does norm in a culture differ?
A
Across every person
B
Across every family
C
Across culture
D
All the above
Question 69 Explanation: 
Norms refers to attitude and behaviours that are considered normal, typical or average within the group. Cultural norms are the standards we live by. They are the shared expectations and rules that guide behaviour of people within social groups. Cultural norms are learned and reinforced from parents, friends, teachers and others while growing up in a society. Norms often differ across cultures, contributing to cross-cultural misunderstandings.
Question 70
____ refer to intangible quality or beliefs accepted and endorsed by a society.
A
Norms
B
Customs
C
Values
D
Heritage
Question 70 Explanation: 
Values refer to intangible quality or beliefs accepted and endorsed by a society. A culture's values are its ideas about what is good, right, fair, and just. Sociologists disagree, however, on how to conceptualize values. Conflict theory focuses on how values differ between groups within a culture, while functionalism focuses on the shared values within a culture.
Question 71
_____ is an expression of the ways of living developed by a community and passed on from generation to generation, including customs, practices, places, objects, artistic expressions and values.
A
Cultural traits
B
Cultural diversity
C
Cultural heritage
D
All the above
Question 71 Explanation: 
Cultural Heritage is an expression of the ways of living developed by a community and passed on from generation to generation, including customs, practices, places, objects, artistic expressions and values. Cultural Heritage is often expressed as either Intangible or Tangible Cultural Heritage. As part of human activity Cultural Heritage produces tangible representations of the value systems, beliefs, traditions and lifestyles.
Question 72
Find out the built environment cultural heritage from the following
  1. Building
  2. Archeological remains
  3. Rural landscapes
  4. Agricultural heritage
A
1 and 2 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 72 Explanation: 
Cultural Heritage can be distinguished in: Built Environment (Buildings, Townscapes, and Archaeological remains), Natural Environment (Rural landscapes, Coasts and shorelines, agricultural heritage) and Artefacts (Books & Documents, Objects, and Pictures).
Question 73
_____ refers to a type of cultural region
A
Cultural landscape
B
Cultural traits
C
Cultural realms
D
None of the above
Question 73 Explanation: 
Cultural realm refers to a type of cultural region. Cultural region is a continuous geographical area characterized by cultural homogeneity. It may be classified into three categories as macro, meso and micro region. Cultural realm is classified based on the attitude, religious belief, language, racial group, technological development, etc. There are twelve Cultural realms in the modern world.
Question 74
The occidental cultural realm is divided into____ subregions
A
3
B
4
C
6
D
9
Question 74 Explanation: 
Occidental culture is the culture of the European society. The occidental culture covers a vast area. It is further divided into six sub-regions considering the impact of regional environment.
Question 75
The Islamic cultural realm covers an area from______ in the west to_____ in the east.
A
Pakistan, Morocco
B
Morocco, Pakistan
C
Pakistan, Bangladesh
D
Bangladesh, Pakistan
Question 75 Explanation: 
The Islamic Cultural Realm is influenced by Islamic values. It covers a vast geographical area from Morocco in the west to Pakistan in the east. The population is sparsely distributed due to inhospitable environment.
Question 76
Which of the following cultural realm is is characterized by joint family, village community, caste systems?
A
Indie cultural system
B
East Asian culture
C
Folk culture
D
South East Asian culture
Question 76 Explanation: 
Indie cultural realm is characterized by joint family, village community, caste system, semi-feudal land relations, subsistence agriculture, paddy farming, seasonal climate changes and agricultural season coming at the same time all over the region.
Question 77
True Buddhist culture can be seen in_______
A
Japan
B
South Korea
C
North Korea
D
Both a and b
Question 77 Explanation: 
East Asian culture is basically a Buddhist culture with regional modifications. True Buddhist culture can be seen in South Korea and Japan. Even these two countries have felt the impact of industrialisation, urbanisation and modernisation. The culture of mainland China has modified the Buddhist system. This culture was adopted after the Second World War.
Question 78
______ influence is evident in Malaysia and Indonesian islands.
A
Islamic
B
Buddhism
C
Christianity
D
Indie culture
Question 78 Explanation: 
South-East Asian Culture is a transitional culture lying at a place where different cultures have intermingled. Dominance of Buddhism can be seen in Myanmar, Thailand and Vietnam. Influence of Christianity can be seen in the Philippines and of Indie culture over islands of Indonesia. The Islamic influence is evident in Malaysia and the Indonesian islands. No other region has such peculiarities.
Question 79
Meso African culture is also known as____
A
Black culture
B
Negro culture
C
Black indie culture
D
Negro indie culture
Question 79 Explanation: 
Meso-African Culture is also known as the Negro culture. It principally includes tropical Africa. Similar cultural systems can be seen among the American Red Indians, Latin American tribes, Australian aboriginals and several tribes of Asia-Pacific region.
Question 80
Which among the following race have folding eyelids, almond shaped eyes and yellowish skin tone?
A
Mongoloid
B
Negroid
C
Caucasoid
D
Australoid
Question 80 Explanation: 
The Mongoloid have the folding eye lids, almond shaped eyes, yellowish skin tone, and V shaped cheeks. Native Americans and Eskimo are also classified as Mongoloid. Compared to the other races, they have the least body hair, least body odour, and smallest limb ratio.
Question 81
Which among the following race is known as white people?
A
Mongoloid
B
Negroid
C
Caucasoid
D
Australoid
Question 81 Explanation: 
The Caucasoid is known as "white people" characterised by the pointy nose, vertical forehead, pinkish/orange skin tone, visible brow ridge, and colourful eyes/hair.
Question 82
The people living Papua New Guinea belongs to which race?
A
Mongoloid
B
Australoid
C
Caucasoid
D
Negroid
Question 82 Explanation: 
Australoid Race have visible eye ridge, wide nose, curly hair, dark skin tone, and short in height. Some believe that their visible ridge helps them to eat stiff foods. They are living in Australia and Papua New Guinea.
Question 83
Which of the following is the only Dravidian language have not been written in Brahmi based script?
A
Tamil
B
Brahui
C
Kannada
D
Telegu
Question 83 Explanation: 
Arabic script Brahui is the only Dravidian language which is not known to have been written in a Brahmi based script, instead, it has been written in the Arabic script since the second half of the 20th century in Iran Pakistan and Afghanistan.
Question 84
In India the share of tribal population to the total population is____ %
A
8.2
B
9.3
C
15
D
33
Question 84 Explanation: 
The percentage of tribal to total population is as high as over 90 percent in Greenland, 66 percent in Bolivia and 40 percent in Peru. In India share of tribal people to total population is 8.2 percent.
Question 85
_____ % of Hindu population is concentrated in south Asia.
A
75
B
99
C
100
D
95
Question 85 Explanation: 
Nearly 99 percent of the total Hindu population is concentrated in south Asia. Its sacred books include the Vedas, the Upanishads, the Epics, the Ramayana and Mahabharata, and the Bhagavad Gita.
Question 86
Lord Buddha founded Buddhism in____
A
525 B.C
B
525 A.D
C
625 B.C
D
625 A.D
Question 86 Explanation: 
Buddhism is also one of the oldest religions of India which was founded by Lord Buddha around 525 B.C (B.C.E). Its spread in several Asian countries (China, Myanmar, India, Sri Lanka, japan, Mangolia, Korea and South East Asian countries) due to its liberal philosophy. Its two main sects are Hinayana and Mahayana.
Question 87
________is regarded as the parent of Christianity
A
Hinduism
B
Judaism
C
Confucianism
D
Taoism
Question 87 Explanation: 
Judaism is the oldest Monotheistic faith which is regarded as the parent of Christianity. It originates 4000 years ago in the Middle East.
Question 88
Taoism was established by____
A
Confucious
B
Lao Tse
C
Leo Tolstoy
D
Tantia tope
Question 88 Explanation: 
Confucianism was established by Confucious (551-479 B.C (BCE)). Taoism was established by Lao Tse (604-517 B.C (BCE)).
Question 89
The average height of pigmies men and women is_____
A
200 cm
B
150 cm
C
100 cm
D
250 cm
Question 89 Explanation: 
The pigmies are Negroid people and are also called Negrillos. They are the nearest approximation of human being to animal. They are short stature, flat nosed, wooly haired, long headed and black people. The average height of men and women are found 150cm. So they are also called dwarf.
Question 90
The territory of Masai lies between_____ latitude
A
1ºN and 6ºS
B
1ºS and 6ºN
C
19ºN and 10ºS
D
1ºE and 6ºW
Question 90 Explanation: 
Masai occupy the interior plateau of the equatorial Africa. The territory of the Masai lies between 1ºN and 6ºS latitudes and covers all the rift valleys in this region.
Question 91
In Arabic, Bedouin means______
A
Camel dwellers
B
Desert dwellers
C
Sea dwellers
D
Rat dwellers
Question 91 Explanation: 
In Arabic, Bedouin means desert dwellers. The Bedouins are most important among the tribal of South West-Asia and North Africa. They are pastoral nomads and keep camel, sheep, goats, horse etc.
Question 92
Which among the following country has highest tribal population?
A
India
B
China
C
Australia
D
Japan
Question 92 Explanation: 
With more than 84.4 million, India has the largest population of the tribal people in the world. These tribal people also known as the adivasis are the poorest in the country, which are still dependent on haunting, agriculture and fishing.
Question 93
_____ number of tribal groups are there in India
A
More than 50
B
Less than 50
C
More than 100
D
Less than 100
Question 93 Explanation: 
There are more than 50 tribal groups in India. Most of the tribal belong basically to the Negrito, Australoid and Mongoloid racial stocks.
Question 94
Which of the following tribe are Tibetan origin?
A
Bhils
B
Gonds
C
Munda
D
Bhutia
Question 94 Explanation: 
hutia tribes are of the Tibetan origin. They migrated to Sikkim around 16th century. In the northern part of the Sikkim they are known as the Lachenpas and Lachungpas. Bhutias forms 14% of the total population of Sikkim. Losar and Losoong are the main festivals celebrated among the Bhutia tribes.
Question 95
Which among the following is the most dangerous tribe in the world?
A
Bhils
B
Sentinelese
C
Khasi
D
Munda
Question 95 Explanation: 
Located far into Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Bay of Bengal in the Indian Ocean, North Sentinel Island is one of the most isolated places on earth. This remote island is home to the Sentinelese tribe, the most dangerous tribe in the world. The Sentinelese are hunter gatherers, as agriculture is not known to them. Their diet consists mainly of coconuts and fish that can be found in the shallow waters around their shores.
Question 96
The population of Sentinelese is estimated around______
A
100
B
1000
C
250
D
500
Question 96 Explanation: 
The population of North Sentinel Island is estimated at 250 individuals. The Sentinelese do not want help from outsiders.
Question 97
How many tribal and sub tribal divisions are there in Tamil Nadu?
A
38
B
50
C
17
D
14
Question 97 Explanation: 
According to census 2011, tribal population in Tamil Nadu is 7, 94,697. There are around 38 tribes and sub-tribes in Tamil Nadu. The tribal people are predominantly farmers and cultivators and they are much dependant on the forest lands.
Question 98
Which of the following falls under backward class?
A
Toda
B
Badaga
C
Irula
D
Paliyan
Question 98 Explanation: 
The Badagas belong to the backward class and are not classified as tribal. They are an agricultural community, dwelling in the higher plateau of the Nilgiris district in the state of Tamil Nadu. They are engaged in tea cultivation and potato growing.
Question 99
Vaishali was established as republic___ century
A
6th BC
B
6th AD
C
7th BC
D
7th AD
Question 99 Explanation: 
Vaishali was established as a republic by the 6th century B.C (BCE), prior to the birth of Gautama Buddha in 563 B.C(BCE), making it the world's first republic.
Question 100
Which of the following country has the maximum number of neighbours touching its border?
A
China
B
India
C
Laos
D
Afghanistan
Question 100 Explanation: 
China has the maximum number of neighbours touching its border. The 14 countries touching its border are: India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan, Kazakhstan, Mongolia, Russia, North Korea, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Bhutan and Nepal.
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