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Geography Part 2 Revision Test in English

Geography Part 2 Revision Test in English

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Question 1
The study of movements and mobility of population is called ________?
A
Immigration
B
Migration
C
Eradication
D
None of these
Question 1 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) The study of movements and mobility of population is called migration. Among the human people from place to place the ancient origin is grouped under major races such us language and religion.
Question 2
The mangoloid is known as _____ race.
A
European
B
African
C
Asiatic
D
Australian
Question 2 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) mangoloids The mongoloid race is commonly known as the Asian-American race.
Question 3
African people are called as_________?
A
Caucasoid
B
Negroid
C
Mongoloid
D
Australoid
Question 3 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) Negroid have the dark eyes, Black skin, black wooly hair, wide nose, long head, and thick lips. They are living in different parts of Africa.
Question 4
International mother language day celebrated in?
A
11th July
B
21st February
C
21st May
D
11th January
Question 4 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) 21st February celebrated as worlds mother language day.
Question 5
The official language of India is __________
A
Marathi
B
Tamil
C
English
D
Hindi
Question 5 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) India has many languages and culture. Each state has its own language though the national language is Hindi, 22 major language were spoken by about 97 percent population of the country.
Question 6
Rural settlements are located near ___________
A
Water bodies
B
Hilly areas
C
coastal areas
D
desert areas
Question 6 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Rural settlements are predominantly located near water bodies such as rivers, lakes, and springs where water can be easily available.
Question 7
India is the ___________country in Asia.
A
Largest
B
2nd largest
C
3rd largest
D
4th largest
Question 7 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) India is the seventh largest country in the world and second largest country in Asia.
Question 8
The southernmost point of the country is_______?
A
Pygmalion Point
B
Cape Comorin
C
Indira Col
D
None of these
Question 8 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) The southernmost point of the country is Pygmalion Point or Indira Point (6°45'N latitude) located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Question 9
The east – west extension distance of india is_______.
A
3950km
B
2990km
C
2933km
D
2504 km
Question 9 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) The east-west extension is 2933 km and it stretches from Rann of Kutch (Gujarat) in the west to Arunachal Pradesh in the east.
Question 10
India has been politically divided into ______ states.
A
28
B
32
C
26
D
29
Question 10 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) India has been politically divided into 29 states and 7 union territories for administrative convenience.
Question 11
New capital of Andhra Pradesh is______?
A
Telangana
B
Guntur
C
Amaravathi
D
Hyderabadh
Question 11 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Amaravati is the new capital of Andhra Pradesh But according to Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act, Hyderabad will be the capital for both the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telungana till 2024 (For 10 years from the act passed) .
Question 12
India’s central meridian is _______ longitude.
A
82°30' E
B
72°30' E
C
82°10' E
D
72°15' E
Question 12 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) India’s central meridian is 82°30' E longitude. It passes through Mirzapur and roughly bisects the country in terms of longitude.
Question 13
. The Pamir Knot, popularly known as the __________.
A
The adope of snow
B
The Peninsular plateau
C
Roof of the World
D
None of these
Question 13 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) The Pamir Knot, popularly known as the “Roof of the World” is the connecting link between the Himalayas and the high ranges of Central Asia.
Question 14
oldest fold mountain range in India is______?
A
Aravalli range
B
Himalaya range
C
Purvanchal hills
D
Western guards
Question 14 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Aravalli range is the oldest fold mountain range in India.
Question 15
Himalayas mount Everest located in ______.
A
India
B
China
C
Nepal
D
Pakistan
Question 15 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Mt. Everest located in Nepal at the height 8848m.
Question 16
In the delta region, the uplands are called _________.
A
Bils
B
Delta
C
Chars
D
Bhangar
Question 16 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) In the delta region, the uplands are called ‘Chars’ while the marshy areas are called ‘Bils’.
Question 17
Largest physiographic division of our country.
A
Deccan Plateau
B
Gurushikhar
C
The Peninsular Plateaus
D
None of these
Question 17 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) This is the largest physiographic division of our country. It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km
Question 18
The peak of _________ is the highest point in the Peninsular plateau.
A
Mt. Everest
B
Aravalli
C
Anaimudi
D
Thotta petta
Question 18 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) The peak of Anaimudi is the highest point in the plateau. Its height is 2,695 m and is located in Anaimalai.
Question 19
The Marina beach on eastern coast in Chennai and it is the ______longest beach in the world.
A
1st
B
2nd
C
3rd
D
4th
Question 19 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) The Marina beach on this coast in Chennai and it is the second longest beach in the world.
Question 20
Largest lake in india __________.
A
lake Chilka
B
kolleru lake
C
pulicat lake
D
puzhal lake
Question 20 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) lake Chilka (Odisha) is the largest lake in India located to the southwest of the Mahanadi delta.
Question 21
The famous lake lies between tamilnadu and Andhra Pradesh is _______.
A
lake Chilka
B
kolleru lake
C
pulicat lake
D
puzhal lake
Question 21 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Pulicat Lake lies in the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu are the well known lake in the east coastal plain.
Question 22
World’s largest delta known as Sundarbans in __________ country.
A
India
B
Pakistan
C
Nepal
D
Bangladesh
Question 22 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) World’s largest delta known as Sundarbans in Bangladesh before joining the Bay of Bengal.
Question 23
The river Ganga originates as Bhagirathi from the _______Glacier.
A
Chemayungdung Glacier.
B
Gangotri Glacier.
C
Kailash Glacier.
D
None of these
Question 23 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) The river Ganga originates as Bhagirathi from the Gangotri Glacier in Uttar Khasi District of Uttarkhand state.
Question 24
The river Kaveri originates at Talakaveri_________ hills of Karnataka.
A
Servarayan hills
B
Kalrayan hills
C
Kudagu hills
D
Mysore forest
Question 24 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) The river Kaveri originates at Talakaveri, Kudagu hills of Karnataka.
Question 25
_________ river is largest among the west flowing rivers of Peninsular India.
A
Narmada
B
Tapti
C
Mahanathi
D
Godawari
Question 25 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) It is the largest among the west flowing rivers of Peninsular India. Its principal tributaries are Burhner, Halon, Heran, Banjar, Dudhi, Shakkar, Tawa, Barna and Kolar.
Question 26
A land between the two converging rivers is called________.
A
Estuary
B
Pass
C
Distributary
D
Doap
Question 26 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) Doab: A land between the two converging rivers.
Question 27
Mouth of a river where it enters the sea through a single channel with a hollow is__________.
A
Estuary
B
Estuary
C
Distributary
D
Doap
Question 27 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Estuary: Mouth of a river where it enters the sea through a single channel with a hollow.
Question 28
: The land area covered with ocean on three sides________?
A
Estuary
B
Peninsula
C
Distributary
D
Doap
Question 28 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) Peninsula: The land area covered with ocean on three sides.
Question 29
A river or stream which contributes its water to main river?
A
Distributary
B
Back water
C
Perennial rivers
D
Tributary
Question 29 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) Tributary: A river or stream which contributes its water to main river.
Question 30
When altitude increase the temperature______.
A
Increase
B
Decreases
C
No change
D
None of these
Question 30 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) When the altitude increases, The temperatures decreases. Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.50C for every 1000 metres of ascent. It is called normal lapse rate.
Question 31
________desert is the driest place on the earth.
A
Atacama
B
Sahara
C
Thar
D
None of these
Question 31 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Atacama desert is the driest place on the earth.
Question 32
Winter season falls on ________?
A
January – February
B
March – May
C
June – September
D
October – December
Question 32 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Winter or cold weather season (January - February). 2. Pre Monsoon or summer or hot weather season (March - May). 3. Southwest monsoon or rainy season (June - September). 4. Northeast monsoon season (October - December).
Question 33
75% of Indian rainfall is received from which season?
A
Winter or cold weather season (January - February).
B
Pre Monsoon or summer or hot weather season (March - May).
C
Southwest monsoon or rainy season (June - September).
D
Northeast monsoon season (October - December).
Question 33 Explanation: 
Explanation: Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall is received from this monsoon. Tamil nadu which is located in the leeward side receives only a meagre rainfall.
Question 34
The average annual rainfall of India is______.
A
220cm
B
132 cm
C
118cm
D
102cm
Question 34 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) The average annual rainfall of India is 118 cm. However, spatial distribution of rainfall in the country is highly uneven.
Question 35
The place which receives highest rainfall in the world.?
A
Sirabunchi
B
Kerala
C
Koorg
D
Mawsynram
Question 35 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) Mawsynram, the place which receives highest rainfall (1141 cm) in the world. It is located in Meghalaya.
Question 36
Tropical Deciduous Forest is also called as________?
A
Monsoon Forests
B
Dry forest
C
Plain forest
D
None of these
Question 36 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Tropical Deciduous Forest are found in the areas with 100 to 200cm annual rainfall. These are called ‘Monsoon Forests’.
Question 37
The altitude range of alpine forest starts from______.
A
1500 m
B
2400 m
C
3200 m
D
1200 m
Question 37 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) It occurs all along the Himalayas with above 2400 m altitude. These are purely having coniferous trees. Oak, silver fir, pine and juniper are the main trees of these forests.
Question 38
The Indian Board for Wildlife (IBWL) was constituted in_______.
A
1972
B
1952
C
1962
D
1965
Question 38 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) The Indian Board for Wildlife (IBWL) was constituted in 1952 to suggest means of protection, conservation and management of wildlife to the government.
Question 39
Indian government established ______ biosphere reserves in india.
A
12
B
25
C
18
D
21
Question 39 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) The Indian government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves in India which protect larger areas of natural habitat and often include one or more National Parks preserves along with buffer zones that are open to some economic uses.
Question 40
The bio sphere reserves of sundarbans located in __________.
A
Gujarat
B
Bihar
C
Orisha
D
West Bengal
Question 41
Project Tiger was launched in____?
A
1965
B
1988
C
1973
D
1983
Question 41 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Project Tiger was launched in April 1973 with the aim to conserve tiger population in specifically constituted “Tiger Reserves” in India.
Question 42
The Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR) classified soils in how many types_____?
A
Four
B
Five
C
Eight
D
Six
Question 42 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) The Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR) set up in 1953 divides the soils of India into the following eight major groups.
Question 43
Ganga and Brahmaputra river valleys have_______?
A
Alluvial soil
B
Red soil
C
Black soil
D
Laterite soil
Question 43 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Ganga and Brahmaputra river valleys; Plains of Uttar Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Punjab, Haryana, West Bengal and Bihar these places have alluvial soil.
Question 44
Usually laterite soils are seen in the area of________?
A
Himalayas
B
Assam hills
C
Maharashtra
D
Uttar Pradesh
Question 44 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) Assam hills, hill summits of Kerala and Karnataka and eastern Ghats and region of Odisha.
Question 45
Cottons are growing well in_______?
A
Alluvial soil
B
Red soil
C
Black soil
D
Laterite soil
Question 45 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Cottons,Tobacco and Sugarcane are growing well in black soils.
Question 46
Which of these below soil texture having greater water holding capacity?
A
Sand
B
Slit
C
Clay
D
None of these
Question 46 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Soil Texture (sand, silt, clay) influence on some properties of soils including water holding capacity. In these clay having high holding capacity of water.
Question 47
The top state for well irrigation is ________?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Rajasthan
D
Gujarat
Question 47 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) States and percentage of well irrigation 1. Uttar Pradesh 26.6 ,2. Madhya Pradesh 14.6 ,3. Rajasthan 13.1 ,4. Gujarat 7.8.
Question 48
Which of the below is coming under modern irrigation.
A
Canal irrigation
B
Well irrigation
C
Rain gun irrigation
D
Tank irrigation
Question 48 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Rain Gun: Rain gun used to spread water like rain as in name and used to serve for crops which used to grow upto 4 feets or high also but we have to adjust sprinklers height as per crop size.
Question 49
Nagarjuna sagar dam was in_______?
A
Tamil nadu
B
Kerala
C
Karnataka
D
Andhra pradesh
Question 49 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) it was built across the river of krishna in andhrapradesh.
Question 50
Agriculture accounts about ______ % of income for india.
A
35
B
25
C
30
D
22
Question 50 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) still the agriculture in India employs more than 50 percent of the population of the country and accounts for about 25 percent of the national income.
Question 51
India is the second largest producer of ________ in world?
A
Wheat
B
Millets
C
Rice
D
Pulses
Question 51 Explanation: 
Explanation: (C) Rice is the Indigenous crop. Indian is the second largest producer of Rice in world.
Question 52
Which crop occupies 34% of the total production of food grains in India?
A
Rice
B
Wheat
C
Tea
D
Maize
Question 52 Explanation: 
Explanation: (B) Wheat is the second most important food crop of India, after Rice. It accounts for 22% of total area and 34% of total production of food grains in our country.
Question 53
The crop which is cultivated for commercial purpose is known as?
A
Horticulture crop
B
Food crop
C
Plantation crop
D
Cash crop
Question 53 Explanation: 
Explanation: (D) Cash crops are the crops in India mainly cultivated for commercial purposes. Cash crops include sugarcane, tobacco, fibre crops(cotton, jute, and mesta) , oilseeds.
Question 54
This crop supply molasses for alcohol industry and bagasse for paper industry?
A
Sugarcane
B
Jute
C
Mesta
D
Tobacco
Question 54 Explanation: 
Explanation: (A) Sugarcane is the most important cash crop in India and India is the second largest producer of the world. Sugarcane supply molasses and bagasse for alcohol and paper industry.
Question 55
The crop name refers to the cultivation of fruits, flowers, and vegetables?
A
Horticulture crop
B
Food crop
C
Cash crop
D
Plantation crop
Question 55 Explanation: 
Explanation: (A) Horticulture crop is the name refers to cultivate fruits, flowers and vegetables. It is the important supplement to Human diet, as they provide essential minerals, vitamins and fibres required for maintaining health.
Question 56
Which animal constitute 37.3% livestock population in India?
A
Goats
B
Cattle
C
Buffaloes
D
Sheep
Question 56 Explanation: 
Explanation: (B) Cattles constitute 37.3% livestock population in India. India is the second largest cattle population after Brazil.
Question 57
Livestock census named Dairy cattle census was conducted every 5 years was first conducted in which year?
A
1921
B
1915
C
1919
D
1957
Question 57 Explanation: 
Explanation: (C) First livestock census was conducted in 1919. Following this 20th livestock census was conducted in 2017.
Question 58
________________ is the leading producer of milk with 27.6 million tones which is 16.8% of total production.
A
Maharashtra
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Tamilnadu
D
West Bengal
Question 58 Explanation: 
Explanation: (B) According to State/UT Animal Husbandry Department during 2016 – 2017 the total production of milk in our nation is 163.7 million tonnes. At this time, the leading producer was Uttar Pradesh.
Question 59
What is the length of Indian Coastline including the coastline of Islands?
A
7517 km
B
7521 km
C
6100 km
D
6102 km
Question 59 Explanation: 
Explanation: (A) Fisheries in India are a very important economic activity and a flourishing sector with varied resources and potentials. The length of Indian coastline is 7,517 km including the coastline of the islands.
Question 60
Pink revolution is for_________?
A
Fertilizers
B
Onion Production / Pharmaceuticals / Prawn Production
C
Overall Production of Agriculture
D
Egg Production / Poultry Production.
Question 60 Explanation: 
Explanation: Onion Production / Pharmaceuticals / Prawn Production – pink revolution is to develop these crops.
Question 61
Fish production is developed under which of the revolution?
A
Blue revolution
B
Pink revolution
C
Silver revolution
D
Golden revolution
Question 61 Explanation: 
Explanation: government introduced the blue revolution for to improve the fish product development.
Question 62
The member of particular nation or community is called as____?
A
Population
B
People
C
Population growth
D
Migration
Question 62 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) People: The members of a particular nation, community, or ethnic group.
Question 63
The current world population is ______?
A
5.5 billion
B
6 billion
C
6.5 billion
D
7 billion
Question 63 Explanation: 
Explanation: The current world population of 7.6 billion is expected to reach 8.6 billion in 2030, 9.8 billion in 2050 and 11.2 billion in 2100.
Question 64
Every year people being added to the world’s population_______.
A
93 million
B
89 million
C
58 million
D
83 million
Question 64 Explanation: 
Explanation: roughly 83 million people being added to the world’s population every year, the upward trend in population size is expected to continue, even assuming that fertility levels will continue to decline.
Question 65
Nigeria’s population expected to surpass the US population before_______?
A
2025
B
2050
C
2036
D
2040
Question 65 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) Nigeria is growing the most rapidly. Consequently, the population of Nigeria, currently the world’s 7th largest, is projected to surpass that of the United States and become the third largest country in the world shortly before 2050.
Question 66
The population density in india is_______?
A
455per Km3
B
333per Km3
C
380 per Km3
D
420 per Km3
Question 66 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) The population density in India is 455 per Km2. India population is 17.74% of the total world population.
Question 67
Which country have Highest male to female ratio in the world?
A
Qatar
B
Saudi
C
Syria
D
Iraq
Question 67 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) With an astounding ratio of 315 males to a 100 females, Qatar holds the number one spot among countries with the highest male to female ratio in the world in 2018.
Question 68
Which state have least literacy rate in india?
A
Kerala
B
Assam
C
Bihar
D
Himachal Pradesh
Question 68 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) India's literacy rate is at 74.04%. Kerala has achieved a literacy rate of 93.91%. Bihar is the least literate state in India, with a literacy of 63.82%.
Question 69
where the migrant makes the decision to move is called _______?
A
Internal migration
B
Local migration
C
Voluntary migration
D
Involuntary migration
Question 69 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Voluntary migration is where the migrant makes the decision to move. Most migration is voluntary.
Question 70
Which of these below option causes loss of bio diversity?
A
Lower population
B
Over population
C
Proper population
D
Population growth
Question 70 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) Overpopulation has caused encroachment into frontier forests and destruction of natural ecosystems that has led to the mass extinction of species.
Question 71
A sudden, large increase in the size of a population is?
A
Population explotion
B
Over population
C
Lower population
D
None of these
Question 71 Explanation: 
Explanation: Population explosion: a sudden, large increase in the size of a population.
Question 72
Which of the following are not densely populated areas?
A
The Ganges valley, Brahmaputra valley, and Eastern Asia.
B
The Ganges valley, Brahmaputra and NE USA.
C
Sahara, Eastern Siberia and Patagonia region.
D
Brahmaputra valley, Hwang – Ho valley and North Western Europe
Question 72 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) Sahara, Eastern Siberia and Patagonia region are less populated area, because of their environment.
Question 73
Speed of ‘voyager 1’ is ________.
A
62140 km/hr
B
7825 km/hr
C
54000 km/hr
D
10000 km/hr
Question 73 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Have you heard about Voyager 1 launched in 1977 still is travelling at the speed of 62140 km/ hour or 17 km/sec.
Question 74
The resources which can always be used again and again are known as___________?
A
Non renewable resources
B
Renewable resources
C
Exhaustible resources
D
None of these
Question 74 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) The resources which can always be used again and again are known as renewable resources. It means these resources have natural regeneration and are inexhaustible.
Question 75
a resource is originated from living organism, the resource is known as__________.
A
Abiotic resources
B
Natural resources
C
Non renewable resources
D
Biotic resources
Question 75 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) a resource is originated from living organism, the resource is known as biotic resource. Coal, mineral oil and forests are examples of biotic resources. Abiotic resources are composed of non-living inorganic matter.
Question 76
The minerals that contain metals is called ______?
A
Energy minerals
B
Non metallic minerals
C
Metallic minerals
D
None of these
Question 76 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) The minerals which contain metal in them are called as metallic minerals. Ex. Iron ore.
Question 77
Which type of iron ore has maximum percent of iron?
A
Magnetite
B
Hematite
C
Limonite
D
Siderite
Question 77 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) Magnetite: It is red in colour and has 72% of pure Iron.
Question 78
Which country produce largest iron ore in the world?
A
India
B
Brazil
C
China
D
Australia
Question 78 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) Australia is the largest producer of Iron ore in the world.
Question 79
Copper is good_________?
A
Non conductor
B
Conductor
C
Mediator
D
None of these
Question 79 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) It is a non - ferrous, soft brown metal. It is a good conductor, with high luster, density and melting point.
Question 80
Largest producer of copper among the below country.
A
USA
B
China
C
Chile
D
Peru
Question 80 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) The main producers are Chile, Peru, China, USA and Congo. Chile is the largest producer of Copper in the world.
Question 81
Main source of Aluminum is?
A
Iron ore
B
Copper
C
Bauxite
D
Bronze
Question 81 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Bauxite is an important ore which is the main source of Aluminum. It is an impure raw material.
Question 82
India is ________ largest country for Producing bauxite.
A
3rd
B
2nd
C
6th
D
5th
Question 82 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world. India is the 5th largest producer of bauxite in the world.
Question 83
Which is the largest country for producing gold?
A
China
B
Australia
C
Russia
D
USA
Question 83 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) China, Australia, Russia, USA and Canada are the leading producers of gold in the world. India ranked 33rd position in the gold production in 2016.
Question 84
Identify the best quality coal below.
A
Bituminous
B
Lignite
C
Anthracite
D
Peat
Question 84 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Anthracite is the best quality coal, which contains more than 95% of carbon. It is very hard but emits very less smoke and leaves very less ash. However its deposits are limited.
Question 85
Which district from tamilnadu produce bauxite?
A
Trichy
B
Chennai
C
Erode
D
Salem
Question 85 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) salem is producing bauxite in tamilnadu.
Question 86
Which region has largest petroleum reserves?
A
South asia
B
West asia or middle east
C
North east
D
East asia
Question 86 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) The west Asia or Middle East is has the largest petroleum reserves, which is about 60% of the world’s oil reserve. The total estimated world’s oil reserves in 2008 were 1,243 (109 bbl).
Question 87
India’s place in petroleum production?
A
12
B
30
C
24
D
22
Question 87 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Saudi Arabia is the largest oil producer of the world with 13.62% of the world output of oil. Russia is the second largest producer in the world. India is placed at 24th position in petroleum production in the world.
Question 88
“Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries formed in______ year?
A
1960
B
1945
C
1953
D
1947
Question 88 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) OPEC is the short form of the “Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries. It was formed in 1960 at Bagdad convention.
Question 89
Natural gas is also called as_______?
A
Super power
B
Eco friendly
C
Green energy
D
None of these
Question 89 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) It is considered as an environment friendly fuel because of its low carbon dioxide emissions. Therefore, this is the only fuel for the present century and it is also called green energy
Question 90
Natural gas was used in________?
A
Cars
B
Air planes
C
Bikes
D
Cooking
Question 90 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) It is widely used as a fuel in industries and domestic cooking purposes. Petrochemical industries use it as fuel and raw material.
Question 91
The most important source of nuclear energy is ________.
A
Lithium
B
Plutonium
C
Uranium
D
Thorium
Question 91 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Heavy metals like Uranium, Thorium, Radium, Plutonium and Lithium are the main sources of nuclear energy. However Uranium is the most important source of nuclear energy.
Question 92
Most devastating nuclear accidents happened which place of Russia?
A
Moscow
B
Chernobyl
C
Glasscow
D
None of these
Question 92 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) Chernobyl - April 29,1986,Russia
Question 93
Hydel power is taken from which resource?
A
Air
B
Nuclear
C
Water
D
Solar
Question 93 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Hydro electricity is produced by using the potential energy of water falling from a certain height.
Question 94
Worlds largest solar power plant is called______?
A
Uganda
B
Moscow
C
Noor complex
D
None of these
Question 94 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Noor Complex is the world’s largest concentrated solar power (CSP) plant, located in the Sahara Desert.
Question 95
The worlds largest single solar power plant is______?
A
Kamuthi solar power plant
B
Noor complex
C
Arisona
D
None of these
Question 95 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Kamuthi Solar Power Project is a photovoltaic power station spread over an area of 2,500 acres (10 km2) in Kamuthi, Ramanathapuram district.
Question 96
The largest wind form in india is________?
A
Karnataka
B
Rajasthan
C
Gujarat
D
Tamilnadu
Question 96 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) in India are Muppandal in Kanyakumari District of Tamil Nadu and Jaisalmer wind park in Rajasthan. They are the first and second largest wind farms of India.
Question 97
Geo thermal energy is derived from_______?
A
Solar power
B
Water
C
Natural heat of the earth
D
Air
Question 97 Explanation: 
Explanation: (c) Geo thermal energy is derived from the natural heat of the earth. The United States is the world's largest producer.
Question 98
A vein of metal ore in the earth?
A
Lodes
B
Alloy
C
Odorant
D
None of these
Question 98 Explanation: 
Explanation: (a) Lodes: a vein of metal ore in the earth.
Question 99
Tidel energy is from?
A
Air
B
Solar
C
Water
D
Ocean
Question 99 Explanation: 
Explanation: (d) It is a renewable energy powered by the natural raise and fall of ocean water.
Question 100
The study of minerals is termed as?
A
Mineraloids
B
Mineralogy
C
Oncology
D
None of these
Question 100 Explanation: 
Explanation: (b) Mineralogy: The study of minerals.
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